Daily Quiz | 28 March 2024

Explanation:

• • The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) refers to the swing in sea-surface temperatures from warm to cool and vice-versa between the eastern and the western parts of the Indian Ocean to the South of Sri Lanka. 
  • The IOD occurs in the relatively smaller area of the Indian Ocean (than the El Nino in the Pacific Ocean) between the Indonesian and Malaysian coastline in the east and the African coastline near Somalia in the west. 
  • Statement 1 is correct: A positive IOD event is often seen developing at times of an El Nino, while a negative IOD is sometimes associated with La Nina. So, During El Nino, the Pacific side of Indonesia is cooler than normal because of which the Indian Ocean side also gets cooler. That helps the development of a positive IOD. 
  • Nevertheless, it’s possible to have an extreme IOD event in the absence of El Nino or La Nina.

• IOD and Indian Monsoon:

• IOD cycles through phases referred to as "positive", "neutral" and "negative". IOD is said to be positive when the western side of the Indian Ocean, near the Somalia coast, develops warmer-than-normal conditions than the eastern Indian Ocean near the Indonesian and Malaysian coastlines. 

Statement 2 is incorrect: The positive IOD event is known to help the South-West monsoon. A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and more active (above normal rainfall) monsoon days while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more monsoon break days (no rainfall).

Explanation:

• Archaeological Survey of India (ASI): It is the premier organization for the archaeological researches and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation. 

• Ministry: Ministry of Culture. 

• Foundation: Archaeological Survey of India was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham, the first Director-General of ASI, often called the father of Indian archaeology. 

• • Functions:
    •  Maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance
    • Regulation of all archaeological activities in the country as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958

• It also regulates Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972

• • Architectural survey of monuments
  • Training in Archaeology
  • Archaeological expeditions outside India 
  • Conducting archaeological explorations and excavations
  • Chemical preservation of monuments and antiquarian remains
  • Epigraphical and numismatic studies
  •  Setting up and re-organization of Site Museums

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Declaration of Monuments and Sites as of National Importance (MNI): 

• The declaration of monuments and sites as of national importance is done under section 4 of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remain Act, 1958. 

• Central Government issues a notification to declare any ancient monument which archaeologically, historically or architecturally qualifies to be of national importance .

•  After considering the views/objections received within the stipulated period, the Central Government may declare the ancient monument to be of national importance by publishing a notification in the official gazette. 

• • • Once a monument or a site is declared to be MNI, their protection and upkeep is the responsibility of the Archaeological Survey of India. 
  • Statement 2 is incorrect:
    • Construction activities are banned around 100 metres within the sites where the monuments are located. 
    • Also, prior permission is required for any repairs or modifications within 200 meters.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Delisting of Monuments: 

• • The ASI has the power to delist monuments it deems to "have ceased to be of national importance" under Section 35 of the Act.
  • Delisting of a monument effectively means it will no longer be conserved, protected, and maintained by the ASI. 
  • Once the monument is delisted, activities related to construction and urbanisation in the area can be carried out in a regular manner. 
  • Once a monument is delisted, the ASI becomes no longer responsible for protecting these monuments.
  • The maximum 'lost' monuments are from Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Introduction to NDRF: The National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) is a centrally managed fund designed to address emergency relief, disaster response, and rehabilitation expenses during disasters.

• • • Established under Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, it serves as a critical resource in times of calamity.

• It is to be noted that under the 2005 Disaster Management Act, there is no definition of disasters. 

• It can include any event arising from natural or man-made causes that can severely disrupt life for people, going beyond their coping capacity.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The fund is placed within the "Public Account" of the Government of India under "reserve funds not bearing interest," ensuring its availability for disaster response.

• • NDRF is financed through levies on specific items subject to excise and customs duties, which are approved annually through the Finance Bill.
  • NDRF accounts undergo annual audits conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), ensuring transparency and accountability in fund utilization.
  • Since the NDRF is placed in the public accounts, the government does not require parliamentary approval to take money out of this fund.
• Statement 3 is incorrect:
  • NDRF provides immediate relief and is not intended as compensation for property or crop losses.
  • It does not cover disaster preparedness, restoration, reconstruction, or mitigation efforts, which are funded through separate schemes such as the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF) and others.

Explanation:

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Sea Cucumbers:

• • Sea cucumbers are part of a larger animal group called echinoderms, which also contains starfish and sea urchins.
  • Their body shape is similar to a cucumber, but they have small tentacle-like tube feet that are used for locomotion and feeding.

• Sea cucumbers are found in all marine environments throughout the world, from shallow to deep-sea environments. 
• Sea cucumbers are benthic, meaning they live on the ocean floor. However, their larvae are planktonic, meaning they float in the ocean with the currents.
• Sea cucumbers exhibit sexual and asexual reproduction. 
  • Unlike most terrestrial animals, sea cucumber eggs undergo external fertilization—females release eggs into the water that are fertilized when they come into contact with sperm that males have released. 
• A sea cucumber can live for 5 to 10 years.

Conservation Status: Their collection or trade is banned under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.

Explanation:

• • Statement 1 is incorrect: The India Employment Report 2024 has been jointly released by the Institute for Human Development and International Labour Organisation.

• Institute for Human Development:

• • • The Institute for Human Development (IHD) was established in the year 1998 under the aegis of the Indian Society of Labour Economics (ISLE).
    • It is a non-profit autonomous institution that aims to build a society that fosters and values an inclusive social, economic and political system that is free from poverty and deprivations.
    • It undertakes research in the areas of labour and employment, livelihood, gender, health, education and other aspects of human development. 
  • India Employment Report: 
    • It is jointly prepared by the Institute for Human Development in collaboration with the International Labour Organization (ILO). 
    • It highlights the challenges of youth employment within India’s evolving economic, labor market, educational, and skills landscapes.
    • India Employment Report has used the data analysis from the National Sample Surveys and the Periodic Labour Force Surveys between 2000 and 2022.

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Key Findings: 

• Almost 82% of the workforce is engaged in the informal sector, and nearly 90% is informally employed.

• • •  There has been an increase in female labor market participation rates since 2019, especially in rural areas.
    •  There has been also a gradual shift in the workforce from agricultural to non-farm sectors.
    •  A modest rise in the wages of casual laborers between 2012 and 2022 has been observed while real wages for regular workers have stagnated or declined.
    • India is expected to have a migration rate of around 40% in 2030 and will have an urban population of around 607 million.

• Challenges of Youth Employment:

• • • India currently benefits from a sizable working-age population, positioning it within the potential demographic dividend zone for the next decade.

• India is approaching a critical juncture as the proportion of youth in the population is projected to decrease from 27% in 2021 to 23% by 2036.

• • • Annually, India sees the addition of 7–8 million youths to its labor force, representing a significant potential for leveraging the demographic dividend.
    • Despite this potential, youth participation in the labor market has historically been lower compared to adults, mainly due to increased engagement in educational pursuits.
    • Over the period from 2000 to 2019, youth unemployment surged nearly threefold, reaching 17.5% in 2019 before declining to 12.1% in 2022.
    • Following the COVID-19 lockdowns, indicators in the youth labor market rebounded swiftly, reflecting signs of recovery.
    • However, this recovery was accompanied by an increase in labor force and workforce additions, primarily in lower-quality employment sectors, posing challenges regarding job quality.

• Way Forward: 

• • Promoting job creation; 
  • Improving employment quality;
  •  Addressing labour market inequalities;
  •  Strengthening skills and active labour market policies; and
  •  Bridging the knowledge deficits on labour market patterns and youth employment.