Daily Quiz | 5 April 2024

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Jet Streams are bands of strong wind in upper troposphere (about 8-14 kms above Earth’s surface).
• Statement 2 is correct: They meander around the globe in relatively narrow belts, dipping and rising in altitude/latitude. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Within Jet Streams, the winds generally blow from west to east, but the band of winds often shifts north and south because Jet Streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air. 
• Jet Streams are thousands of kilometers in length and a few hundred kilometers in width and having a vertical thickness of two or more kilometers. 
• The mean velocity of Jet Streams is about 144 km/h. However, at times the mean velocity of inner core of Jet Streams may be as high as 480 km/h.

Explanation:

• The Formation of the Ring of Fire:

• • • The Ring of Fire is a distinctive geological feature, spanning approximately 40,250 kilometers along the Pacific Ocean. 
    • Shaped like a semicircle or horseshoe, it is characterized by a string of hundreds of volcanoes and earthquake-prone sites. 
    • This phenomenon is attributed to the convergence of multiple tectonic plates, including the Eurasian, North American, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, Caribbean, Nazca, Antarctic, Indian, Australian, and Philippine plates, encircling the vast Pacific Plate.
    • It runs through 15 more countries including the USA, Indonesia, Mexico, Japan, Canada, Guatemala, Russia, Chile, Peru, and the Philippines.

• The Proliferation of Volcanoes:

• • The proliferation of volcanoes within the Ring of Fire is closely linked to the movement of tectonic plates.
  •  Many of these volcanoes are formed through a process known as subduction, wherein two plates collide and the denser oceanic plate is forced beneath the lighter continental plate, creating deep trenches. 
  • This process leads to the generation of magma, which subsequently rises through the overlying plate and erupts at the surface, forming volcanoes. 
  • The prevalence of subduction zones within the Ring of Fire contributes to its high concentration of volcanoes, making it one of the most geologically active regions on Earth.
  • Notably, Taiwan experiences significant earthquakes due to the convergence of the Philippine Sea Plate and the Eurasian Plate.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: 

• • • Establishment: NATO was formed in 1949 with the aim of acting as a deterrent to the threat of Soviet expansion in Europe after World War II. 
    • The Washington Treaty – or North Atlantic Treaty – forms the basis of the NATO.
    • Purpose: The organization acts as a collective security alliance with the aim of providing mutual defense through military and political means if a member state is threatened by an external country. (Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty). 
  • Statement 2 is correct:  Founding Founders: Its 12 founding members are the United States, the United Kingdom, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway and Portugal.

• Total Members:  NATO has 32 members, including recent additions of Finland and Sweden.

• Statement 3 is correct: Article 5: The principle of collective defence is at the very heart of NATO’s founding treaty. It is enshrined in Article 5 of the Washington Treaty.

• Meaning: Collective defence means that an attack against one Ally is considered as an attack against all Allies.

• • Instances where it was used?
  • NATO invoked Article 5 for the first time in its history after the 9/11 terrorist attacks against the United States. 
  • NATO has taken collective defence measures on several occasions, including in response to the situation in Syria and the Russian invasion of Ukraine.
  • Standing forces: NATO has a number of standing forces on active duty that contribute to the Alliance’s collective defence on a permanent basis.
    • These include NATO’s four standing maritime group fleets, which are ready to act when called upon. 
  • Additionally, NATO has an integrated air defence system that links national air defence capabilities together and includes the Alliance’s ballistic missile defence capabilities.
  • Troops and Equipment: When the Alliance collectively decides to conduct an operation, it asks Allies for troops and equipment to be placed under NATO command.

Explanation

• • Living Wills,:

• They are also known as advance medical directives.

• • • They are legal documents that allow individuals to specify their preferences for medical treatment in the event they become incapacitated and are unable to communicate their wishes. 
    • Living wills gives control to an individual on how he or she should be treated in case of incapacitation.
    • It also gives clarity to family members who would otherwise have to make difficult decisions on medical care and life support systems.

• Statement 1 is incorrect:  Validity of living wills in India: 

• • • The Supreme Court, in a landmark judgment in 2018, accepted and recognised the “right to die with dignity” as part of the fundamental ‘Right to Life’ under Article 21 of the constitution. 
    • The court observed that every adult individual with the mental capacity to make an informed decision has the right to refuse medical treatment, and life support systems, by executing an advance medical directive or a living will.
    •  The apex court said that these advance medical directives can be applied only in specific cases, where a patient becomes terminally ill and is not able to convey that the treatment must stop.

• Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect:  New Guidelines by Supreme Court:

• Simplified Documentation Requirements: The Supreme Court, led by Justice KM Joseph, implemented revisions to the 2018 guidelines for the registration and enforcement of living wills. 

• • • Witness and Attestation Requirements: Under the new guidelines, a living will must be signed and witnessed by two independent individuals.
      •  Notably, attestation by a notary or a gazetted officer now suffices, replacing the previous mandate for attestation by a judicial magistrate of first class.

• Clarification of Decision-Making Authority: The revised guidelines mandate explicit mention of the guardian or close relative authorized to make decisions regarding withdrawal of medical treatment in the event of the maker's incapacitation.

• Revised Composition and Expertise of Medical Boards: Previously, medical boards were required to consist of three doctors with a minimum of 20 years' experience in various medical fields. 

• However, under the updated guidelines, the minimum experience requirement has been reduced to five years, with at least two doctors designated as subject experts.

• Timely Review Processes: Both the primary and secondary medical boards are now expected to provide their opinions within 48 hours of receiving a case referral, facilitating quicker decision-making processes.
• Recourse in Case of Disagreement: In instances where there is a disparity of opinions between the primary and secondary medical boards, or if both boards refuse permission, the patient's next of kin reserve the right to petition the High Court. The High Court may then establish a new medical board to reassess the case.

• Statement 1 is correct: Nuclear Energy in India:

• • • India was among the pioneers in adopting nuclear energy. 
    • In 1948, just one year after gaining independence, the country enacted its first Atomic Energy Act and embarked on the journey of nuclear energy development. 

• Initially, India introduced small reactors manufactured by General Electric, eventually becoming the first Asian nation to operate nuclear power plants in 1969.

• Statement 2 is correct: 

• • • Currently, nuclear energy makes up only 1.6% of India’s energy mix.

• Recently a 700 MW nuclear power plant has been inaugurated by PM of India, entirely developed within India, situated in Kakrapar, Gujarat. 

• • • • Nuclear power plant projects with a capacity of 700 MW each are underway at two other locations: Rawatbhata in Rajasthan (RAPS 7 and 8) and Gorakhpur in Haryana (GHAVP 1 and 2).
    • Recently, Unit 4 of the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project (KAPP 4–700 MW) reached a significant milestone by achieving criticality, marking the commencement of a controlled fission chain reaction, for the first time.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: 
    • India has approved plans to establish a 6 x 1208 MW nuclear power plant in collaboration with the USA at Kovvada in Srikakulam district, Andhra Pradesh.

• Importance of Nuclear Energy for India: 

• Nuclear power's role as a clean environment-friendly source of continuous electricity is essential for India's sustainable energy future and its goal of achieving a net zero economy by 2070. 

•  India currently operates 23 nuclear power reactors, which have generated approximately 411 billion units of electricity over the past ten years, preventing the release of about 353 million tons of CO2 equivalent. 

• The Central  Government has initiated steps to triple its nuclear power capacity from the current 7,480 megawatts (MW) to 22,480 MW by 2031-32.

• Annual electricity generation from nuclear power plants has increased from 35,334 million units in 2013-14 to 46,982 million unit in 2022-23.

• Key Findings of the Study:

• In the most optimistic scenario, emissions could drop to 0.55 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide by 2070, achieving a 'net zero' status.

• To reach this goal, nuclear power needs to increase significantly: from the current level to 30 gigawatts (GW) by 2030 and 265 GW by 2050.

• Funding these changes would require approximately Rs. 150-200 lakh crore between 2020 and 2070.