Weekly Current Affairs

Weekly Current Affairs Quiz

July Month

Created on July 19, 2023 By

admin

3rd July Current Affair Quiz

1 / 20

With reference to the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, consider the following statements:

The Act was enacted in August 2003 to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management.
The Act sets the fiscal deficit target for the Central government at 3% of the GDP.
The Act allows states to exceed their annual budget deficits without any restrictions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct. The FRBM Act was enacted to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management.

Statement 2 is correct. The Act initially set the fiscal deficit target for the Central government at 3% of the GDP.

Statement 3 is not correct. The Act requires states to limit their annual budget deficits to 3% of their Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), so they cannot exceed their deficits without restrictions.

2 / 20

Q With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill 2023, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a)Data Fiduciary is any person who alone or in conjunction with other persons determines the purpose and means of the processing of personal data.

(b)Data Principal means any individual to whom the personal data relates and where such individual is a child includes the parents or lawful guardian of such a child.

(c)Data Processor means any person who processes personal data on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

(d)None of the above.

Explanation:

• Personal data: Data about an identifiable individual.

• Data Fiduciary: Person determining the purpose and means of processing personal data.

• Processing: Automated operations on digital personal data.

• Data Principal: Individual to whom the personal data relates.

• Data Processor: Person processing personal data on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

3 / 20

Q With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill 2023, which of the following is the range of penalties for non-compliance?

(a) Rs. 10000 to Rs. 250 Crores

(b) Rs. 500 to Rs. 150 Crores

(d) Rs. 1 Lakh to Rs 100 Crores

Correct Answer: (a) Rs. 10000 to Rs. 250 Crores

Explanation:

Penalties for non-compliance range from up to Rs 10,000 for violating duties to up to Rs 250 crore for data breaches.

4 / 20

Diarrhoea can be caused by

(a) Bacteria

(b) Viruses

(d) All of the above

Explanation:

A three-year surveillance study from March 2017 to February 2020 in Kolkata has found an amoeba pathogen that previously did not cause any amoebiasis (a form of diarrhoea) in humans has now become pathogenic.

Diarrhoea can be caused by bacteria, viruses and amoeba pathogens.

In the study, the researchers found nearly 5% of patients with diarrhoea were caused by different Entamoeba species and over 3% of patients were infected with E. moshkovskii.

5 / 20

Kasol-Tirthan Valley, is located in

a) Jammu and Kashmir

b) Sikkim

c) Himachal Pradesh

d) Uttarakhand

Explanation:

Kasol-Tirthan Valley is a picturesque destination in Himachal Pradesh, India. Kasol, known as "Mini Israel," offers stunning mountain views, riverside camping, and a vibrant backpacking culture.

Tirthan Valley, nestled in the Great Himalayan National Park, is known for its pristine rivers, waterfalls, and trekking trails.

It is a paradise for nature lovers and adventure enthusiasts seeking tranquility and scenic beauty in the lap of the Himalayas.

6 / 20

QRegarding AIF Scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Agriculture Infra Fund Scheme (AIF) is a financing facility launched in 2020 for the creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farm assets.

The duration of the scheme is from FY2020 to FY2029 (10 years).

Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans with an interest subvention of 3% per annum.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) Statement 1 and 3 are correct.

(d) All are correct.

Statement 1 is correct because the Agriculture Infra Fund Scheme (AIF) is a financing facility launched in 2020 for the creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farm assets.

Statement 2 is correct because the duration of the scheme is from FY2020 to FY2029 10 years.

Statement 3 is correct because Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans with an interest subvention of 3% per annum. Eligible beneficiaries include farmers, FPOs, PACS, Marketing Cooperative Societies, SHGs, etc.

7 / 20

Q With reference to cicadas, which of the statements given above are incorrect?

a) Cicadas are commonly found worldwide.

(b) Cicadas have transparent wings and large eyes.

(d) Cicadas periodically emerge in large numbers, known as "cicada swarms" or "broods."

EXPLANATION:

Recently, a 'foreign' cicada commonly found in several
parts of South India has been given an Indian identity. Cicada is an insect with a distinct singing call, mainly by males to attract females. It has transparent wings, large eyes and is often found in trees. It periodically emerges in large numbers, known as "cicada swarms" or "broods"
and is commonly found worldwide. Cicadas are important for Nutrient cycling in soil, Serving as food for predators Indirectly aiding in pollination, Indicating ecosystem
health and Cultural significance

Statement 3 is incorrect: Cicadas are important for nutrient cycling in soil as they contribute to the decomposition of organic matter and facilitate nutrient release.

8 / 20

Q Which one of the following best describes the term "Sand Point" sometimes seen in the news?

(a) A geological phenomenon caused by tectonic plate movements.

(b) A small city located in the Aleutians East Borough of Alaska, USA.

(d) A geological fault line in the Pacific Ring of Fire.

EXPLANATION:
Recently, on July 15, 2023, a powerful magnitude 7.2 earthquake hit the offshore Alaska Peninsula region, particularly near Sand Point. Sand Point is a small city located in the Aleutians East Borough of Alaska, USA. The economy of Sand Point is primarily based on commercial fishing, especially for salmon, halibut and crab. The area is susceptible to earthquakes and tsunamis due to its location along the seismically active Pacific Ring of Fire.

Statement 1 is not correct: Sand Point is not a geological phenomenon caused by tectonic plate movements.
Statement 2 is correct: Sand Point is a small city located in the Aleutians East Borough of Alaska, USA.
Statement 3 is not correct: Sand Point has a commercial fishing industry and not diamond industry, it is primarily known as a city rather than an offshore region.
Statement 4 is not correct: Sand Point is not a geological fault line in the Pacific Ring of Fire.

9 / 20

Q With reference to the Kaas Plateau, which of the statements given above are incorrect?

(a) The Kaas Plateau is located in Satara District, Maharashtra.

(b) The Kaas Plateau is made of metamorphic rocks.

(d) There has been a major shift in Indian Summer Monsoons according to a study of sediments from a seasonal lake in Kaas Plateau

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: The Kaas Plateau is located in Satara District, Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kaas Plateau is made of igneous rocks not metamorphic rocks.
Statement 3 is correct: The Kaas Plateau is inscribed in the UNESCO World Natural Heritage Site list under the name of Western Ghats.
Statement 4 is correct: According to a study of sediments from a seasonal lake in Kaas Plateau, there has been a major shift in Indian Summer Monsoons.

10 / 20

Q Thermal InfraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment (TRISHNA) mission is a joint initiative of:

(a) India-France

(b) India-Japan

(d) USA-European Union

EXPLANATION:

Thermal InfraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment (TRISHNA) is a joint development by the French Space Agency (CNES) and Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The satellite will join the Franco-Indian fleet for use in climate monitoring and operational applications.

11 / 20

Consider the following statements about SAMRIDDHI Scheme:

1. The scheme will strengthen municipal revenue for infrastructure development all over India.

2. It will serve as a one-time property tax amnesty scheme for residents of authorised and regularised colonies in Delhi.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SAMRIDDHI: Property Tax Amnesty Scheme

Lieutenant Governor (L-G) Vinai Kumar Saxena launches SAMRIDDHI scheme in Delhi.

One-time scheme for property tax relief.

Targets residents of authorised and regularised colonies in Delhi.

Offers amnesty for principal tax amount of current and last five years.

Provides relaxation on penalties and outstanding dues.

12 / 20

Consider the following statements:

1. Core inflation is a measure of inflation calculated by adding the prices of food and fuel.

2. Super core inflation is calculated by removing gold and silver price inflation from core inflation.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The core inflation rate has inched to 6.2 per cent from 6.1 per cent in December and super core inflation rate has gone up to 6.3 per cent from 6.2 per cent.

Core inflation is a measure of inflation calculated by removing the prices of food and fuel because the prices of food and fuel prices fluctuate massively. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Super core inflation is calculated by removing gold and silver price inflation from core inflation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

13 / 20

Consider the following countries

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. India

4. Japan

How many of the above countries are members of the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Correct Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

UK agrees to join the Comprehensive and Progressive
Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)
as 12^th member.

Aims to build global ties post-Brexit departure from the EU.

CPTPP:

Free trade agreement (FTA) established in 2018.

11 member countries: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile,

Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru,

Singapore, and Vietnam.

Does not have a single market for goods or services, no regulatory harmonization like the EU.

14 / 20

Q Nord Stream Pipeline connects which of the following countries?

(a) Russia-Germany

(b) Russia-France

(d) Ukraine-Poland

Explanation:

Nord Stream 1:

Underwater gas pipeline from Russia to Germany via Baltic Sea.

Majority owned by Gazprom, supplies Russian gas to Germany.

Nord Stream 2:

Proposed $11B pipeline from Russia to Germany.

Carries 55 billion cubic meters of gas per year.

Gas Supply to Germany:

Germany is Russia's largest European gas consumer.

Majority of Russian gas enters Germany through Nord Stream Pipeline.

Germany's share of Russian gas supplies: 55% in 2021, now at 35%.

15 / 20

Q Which of the following lakes is shared by three riparian countries, Kenya, Tanzania and Uganda, with Rwanda and Burundi being part of the upper watershed draining into the lake?

(a) Lake Malavi

(b) Lake Tanganyika

(d) Lake Victoria

Explanation:

Lake Victoria is shared by three riparian countries: Kenya, Tanzania, and Uganda, with Rwanda and Burundi being part of the upper watershed draining into the lake.

This body of water has the potential to be an economic powerhouse, capable of supporting subsistence and market economies and safeguarding the future of significant population.

16 / 20

Q With reference to ISRO's launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

ISRO has three classes of launch vehicles: PSLV, GSLV, and SSLV.

The GSLV is used to launch heavier payloads and can reach higher orbits.

The LVM-3, also known as Launch Vehicle Mark 3, is the most powerful configuration of PSLV.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has three classes of launch vehicles: the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV), and the new Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).

PSLV has a famous reputation as a “workhorse”, with a very low failure rate. The PSLV can lift up to 3.8 tonnes to low earth orbit.
Statement 1 is correct: ISRO has three classes of launch vehicles: PSLV, GSLV, and SSLV.

Statement 2 is correct: The GSLV is used to launch heavier payloads and can reach higher orbits.

Statement 3 is not correct: The LVM-3 is the most powerful configuration of GSLV, not PSLV.

17 / 20

With reference to the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM-3), consider the following statements:

The first stage of LVM-3 consists of two S200 boosters that use liquid fuels.

The second stage of LVM-3 is powered by two Vikas engines, which use liquid fuel.

The uppermost final stage of LVM-3 is powered by a cryogenic engine that burns liquefied hydrogen with liquefied oxygen.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the first stage of LVM-3 consists of two S200 boosters which uses solid fuel known as hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene.

Statement 2 is correct as the second stage of LVM-3 is powered by two Vikas engines using liquid fuel.

Statement 3 is correct as the uppermost final stage of LVM-3 is powered by a cryogenic engine burning liquefied hydrogen with liquefied oxygen.

18 / 20

Q With reference to forest loss in tropical areas, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Primary forests store more carbon than other forests.

(b) Primary forest loss is reversible.

(d) Tropical areas lost 4.1 million hectares of forest cover in 2022.

Explanation:

Global Forest Loss in 2022:

Tropical areas lost 4.1 million hectares of forest, equivalent to 11 football fields per minute.

Primary forest loss increased by 10% compared to the previous year.

This resulted in 2.7 billion tonnes of CO2 emissions, similar to India's annual emissions from fossil fuels.

Progress on Forest Commitments:

The world is off track to meet its goals of ending deforestation by 2030 and restoring 350 million hectares of forests.

Global deforestation needs to be reduced by 10% annually, but the current rate is still too high.

Option b is Not Correct: Primary forest loss is almost irreversible in nature.

19 / 20

Q With reference to the ‘Threads’ often mentioned in the news, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Threads is a text-based public conversation app launched by Meta (formerly Facebook).

(b) Twitter is a decentralised platform with more control over user actions and content moderation.

(d) None of the above statements is incorrect.

Explanation:

Option a is Correct: Threads is indeed a text-based public conversation app launched by Meta (formerly Facebook).

Option b is Incorrect: The statement is incorrect because Twitter is a centralised platform.

Option c is Correct: Threads, Mastodon, and potentially Bluesky do offer decentralised features and user data portability.

Option d is Correct: None of the statements other than (b) is incorrect.

20 / 20

The term ‘CROWN JEWELS’ is often mentioned in the news is related to/ in context of -

(a) WTO

(b) IMF

(d) UNSC

Explanation:

Dispute settlement system of WTO is known as WTO’s Crown Jewel.

Once a complaint is filed, disputes can be settled through mutual agreement or adjudication.

The WTO has a robust dispute settlement mechanism, with over 350 rulings issued since 1995. The process involves consultations, adjudication by panels (Adjudicating Body) and the Appellate Body, and implementation of rulings.

The WTO's Appellate Body, established in 1995, reviews appeals against judgments in trade-related disputes. It consists of seven members and focuses on legal interpretations rather than re-examining evidence. The Appellate Body can uphold, modify, or reverse the findings of the panel. Countries involved in a dispute can appeal.

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Created on July 19, 2023 By

admin

2nd July Current Affair Quiz

1 / 20

With reference to the National Archives of India (NAI), consider the following statements:

The NAI holds records of the government and its organizations only and does not receive classified documents.
The NAI is the repository of all non-current government records and functions under the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

The National Archives of India (NAI) is the repository of non-current government records. It functions under the Ministry of Culture and is located in Delhi. It does not receive classified documents. The NAI holds records starting from 1748 in various languages. Efforts have been made to digitize the records through the Abhilekh Patal portal. Ministries and departments transfer records older than 25 years to the NAI, unless they are classified. The NAI also organizes exhibitions on various themes, including declassified files on Subhas Chandra Bose and the history of Jammu & Kashmir.

Statement 1 is correct. The NAI keeps and conserves records of the government and its organizations only, and does not receive classified documents.

Statement 2 is correct. The NAI functions under the Ministry of Culture and is the repository of all non-current government records.

2 / 20

With reference to the shift in Earth's axis of rotation due to excessive groundwater extraction, consider the following statements:

The excessive extraction of groundwater has caused a shift in the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east.
The shift in the Earth's axis due to groundwater extraction has significant real-life consequences.
Human activities, including excessive groundwater extraction, can contribute to the phenomenon of polar motion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Statements 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The study states that the excessive extraction of groundwater between 1993 and 2010 has caused a shift in the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east.
Statement 2 is not correct. Although the shift in the Earth's axis due to groundwater extraction is not significant enough to have real-life consequences, it has contributed to global sea level rise. Therefore, it does not have direct significant real-life consequences.
Statement 3 is correct . Human activities, including excessive groundwater extraction, can contribute to the phenomenon of polar motion. While natural factors like rocks circulating inside Earth's mantle and ocean currents also play a role, human activities impact this phenomenon.
The excessive extraction of groundwater has shifted the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east at a rate of 4.36 cm per year, according to a study. Although the shift is not significant enough to have real-life consequences, it has contributed to global sea level rise. This phenomenon, known as "polar motion," occurs naturally due to changes in mass distribution. Human activities, including groundwater extraction, have impacted the planet's axis.

3 / 20

Consider the following statements.

State legislatures can make law prescribing a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state.
Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence.

Article 16(2) states that “no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State”. The provision is supplemented by the other clauses in the Constitution that guarantee equality.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 16(3) of the Constitution provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.

Statement 3 is correct. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

4 / 20

With reference to World Environment Day and the concept of Net Zero State, consider the following statements:

World Environment Day is celebrated every year on the 5th of June, and the theme for 2023 is "Solution to Plastic Pollution."
A Net Zero State refers to a country's emissions being compensated by the removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. India aims to achieve net zero emissions by 2070.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. World Environment Day is indeed celebrated every year on the 5th of June, and the theme for 2023 is "Solution to Plastic Pollution." The establishment of World Environment Day by the United Nations Assembly in 1972 during the Stockholm Conference is also accurate information.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While a Net Zero State refers to a country's emissions being compensated by the removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere, the specific target of India aiming to achieve net zero emissions by 2070 is not mentioned in the information provided.

5 / 20

With reference to the Kavach system, consider the following statements:

Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System for the Indian Railways.
It is designed to bring a train to a halt automatically when it notices another train on the same line within a prescribed distance.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Both the statements are correct.

KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System for Indian Railways. Main Function of Kavach: It is designed to bring a train to a halt automatically when it notices another train on the same line within a prescribed distance.

Developed by: Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) of the Ministry of Railways in collaboration with Indian industry.

Statement 2 is correct. Kavach system, consisting of electronic and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices, is designed to automatically halt a train when another train on the same line is detected within a prescribed distance. This is aimed at preventing accidents and collisions on rail tracks.

6 / 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Gravitational waves were first directly observed in 2016.
India's Giant Metre wave Radio Telescope played a role in the recent discovery of gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves can be detected using electromagnetic radiation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 only

(b) Statement 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational waves were first directly observed in 2016.

Statement 2 is correct: India's Giant Metre wave Radio Telescope was involved in the recent discovery of gravitational waves.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Gravitational waves cannot be detected using electromagnetic radiation, as they require specialized instruments like the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory (LIGO).

7 / 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Chandrayaan-3 is integrated with the Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) for its upcoming mission.
Chandrayaan-3 aims to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has integrated Chandrayaan-3 with the Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) for its upcoming mission.

Statement 2 is correct: Chandrayaan-3 aims to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface, with an indigenous lander module (LM), a propulsion module (PM), and a rover.

8 / 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was initially formed by the Shanghai Five countries, which included Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan.
The SCO aims to promote regional security, reduce border troops, and combat terrorism.
India and Pakistan became observers of the SCO in 2005 and full members in 2017.
Iran joined the SCO as a full member in 2023.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1& 2 only

(b) 2 & 4 only

(d) All are correct

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Shanghai Five countries were Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan.

Statement 2 is correct: The SCO focuses on regional security, reducing border troops, and combating terrorism.

Statement 3 is correct: India and Pakistan joined the SCO as observers in 2005 and became full members in 2017.

Statement 4 is correct: Iran has recently joined the SCO as a full member in July 2023.

9 / 20

Q Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant is often mentioned in the news is located in which of the following countries?

(a)Russia

(b)Belarus

(d) Ukraine

Explanation: Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant is located southwest of Zaporizhzhia city, along the Dnieper river in Ukraine. It was taken over by Russian forces in May 2022 and has since had to operate in conditions that threaten safety. In June, a Lithuania-based NGO named the Bellona Foundation published a report analysing the risks associated with the hostilities around the Zaporizhzhia NPP based on the facility’s design, safety measures, and the local geography.

10 / 20

Q Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Wildlife Protection in India?

(a) Chinkara or Indian gazelle is the State animal of Gujarat.

(b) According to Article 5A (g) of the Constitution, it is a fundamental duty of citizens to protect wildlife and show compassion towards all living creatures.

(d) Section 55(c) of the Wildlife Protection Act empowers the court to take cognisance of an offence on the complaint of a private person.

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect. Chinkara or Indian gazelle is the State animal of Rajasthan. Rest all are correct.

11 / 20

Q Kaji Nemu” is a variety of lemon which has recently got a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. It belongs to-

(a) Assam

(b) Manipur

(d) Tripura

Explanation:

“Kaji nemu (Assam lemon)” has got a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. It produces fruits all around the year having two peak seasons in a year.

It is different from other varieties of lemon in flavour, unique aroma and comparatively larger.

The sour citrus fruit is widely used in culinary, beverages, industries and medicines.

12 / 20

Q Miyako Strait was in the news recently. The strait is located between

(a) Japan and South Korea

(b) China and Philippines

(d) Japan and China

Explanation

• Miyako Strait is a waterway between Japan and China. It is one of the international waterway for the Chinese to reach out to Pacific Ocean.

• The Miyako Strait marks a linguistic and cultural divide between the Southern and Northern Ryukyuan languages.

13 / 20

Q With reference to the United Nations Statistical Commission, consider the following statements:

1. India has been elected to the UN Statistical Commission beginning on 1 January 2024.

2. It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting of statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods.

3. It is a functional commission of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

4. The term of office of members is three years.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Explanation:

India has been elected to the UN Statistical Commission for a four-year term beginning on 1 January 2024. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The United Nations Statistical Commission, established in 1947, is the highest body of the global statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the world.

— It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods, including their implementation at the national and international level. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

14 / 20

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Marine Biodiversity of Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) or the High Seas Treaty?

The High Seas Treaty is the third agreement to be approved under UNCLOS, after the 1994 and 1995 treaties.
The treaty aims to address issues such as increasing sea surface temperatures, overexploitation of marine biodiversity, overfishing, coastal pollution, and unsustainable practices beyond national jurisdiction.
Many developed countries, including Russia and China, oppose the treaty due to their support for private entities involved in advanced research and development in marine technology.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 only

(b) Statement 2 and 3 only

(d) Statement 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The High Seas Treaty is the third agreement to be approved under UNCLOS, after the 1994 and 1995 treaties.

Statement 2 is correct: The treaty aims to address critical issues such as increasing sea surface temperatures, overexploitation of marine biodiversity, overfishing, coastal pollution, and unsustainable practices beyond national jurisdiction.

Statement 3 is correct: Many developed countries, including Russia and China, oppose the treaty due to their support for private entities involved in advanced research and development in marine technology.

15 / 20

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Artemis Accords?

The Artemis Accords were introduced by NASA in 2020 as a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of outer space.
The Accords are a legally binding multilateral treaty that sets out specific rules and principles for the extraction of space resources.
India recently signed the Artemis Accords to collaborate with the US and other countries on the Artemis Program.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 3 only

(b) Statement 1 and 2 only

(d) Statement 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Artemis Accords were introduced by NASA in 2020 as a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of outer space.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Accords are a non-binding bilateral arrangement and do not have the status of a multilateral treaty or a legally binding contract. Accords do not have the status of a multilateral treaty, or a contract nor does it set out legal principles or rules by any stretch of imagination.

Statement 3 is correct: India signed the three-year-old Artemis Accords, a US-led international partnership on planetary exploration and research. The Accords have been signed by 26 countries till now, including Japan, Australia, the UK, France, and Canada. A set of 13 principles, the Artemis Accords is closely linked to the Artemis Program, which aims to return astronauts to the lunar surface, build a space camp there, and carry out deep space exploration.

16 / 20

Q Which of the following statements about Naegleria fowleri is true?

1. Naegleria fowleri is a type of bacteria that can cause primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

2. Naegleria fowleri can enter the human body through the nose and cause inflammation and destruction of brain tissue.

Choose the correct option.

A) Only Statement 1 is true.

B) Only Statement 2 is true.

C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.

D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because Naegleria fowleri is not a type of bacteria, but a type of free-living amoeba. It is important to differentiate between amoebas and bacteria, as they are different types of microorganisms.

Statement 2 is correct. Naegleria fowleri can indeed enter the human body through the nose and reach the brain, causing inflammation and destruction of brain tissue. This infection is known as primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) and is a rare but severe condition. The colloquial term "brain-eating amoeba" is used to describe Naegleria fowleri due to its ability to affect the brain.

17 / 20

Q Which of the following statements about solar shooting stars (coronal mass ejections) and coronal rain is correct?

A) Solar shooting stars are responsible for heating up the Sun's corona.

B) Coronal rain occurs when hot plasma cools and condenses in weak magnetic fields.

C) Solar shooting stars and coronal rain are unrelated phenomena.

D) Coronal rain is usually associated with inactive regions of the Sun.

Explanation:

Solar shooting stars (coronal mass ejections) are not responsible for heating up the Sun's corona, which contradicts option A.

Coronal rain occurs when hot plasma cools and condenses in strong magnetic fields, supporting option B. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Option C is incorrect as it states that the phenomena are unrelated, and

Option D is incorrect as it incorrectly associates coronal rain with inactive regions instead of active regions.

18 / 20

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Garo people practice shifting cultivation as their primary agricultural method.
The Garo people follow a monotheistic religious belief system influenced by Islam.
The Garo people traditionally follow their own indigenous religious practices involving animism and ancestor worship.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only statement 1 is correct.

(b) Only statement 2 is correct.

(d) Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Garo people, an indigenous tribe in Northeast India and Bangladesh, practice shifting cultivation, also known as Jhum cultivation, as their primary agricultural method.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Garo people do not follow a monotheistic religious belief system influenced by Islam. They traditionally follow their own indigenous religious practices involving animism and ancestor worship.

Statement 3 is correct: The Garo people traditionally follow their own indigenous religious practices involving animism and ancestor worship.

19 / 20

With reference to Indian Ocean Geoid Low, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1 The Indian Ocean Geoid Low (IOGL) is a profound gravitational anomaly in the Indian Ocean.

2 The IOGL is estimated to have formed 20 million years ago and consists of slabs from the Tethys Ocean.

3 The gravity hole is a region of the ocean where the effects of gravity are less than usual.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 only

(b) Statement 2 and 3 only

(d) Statement 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Ocean Geoid Low (IOGL) is indeed a profound gravitational anomaly in the Indian Ocean.

Statement 2 is correct: The IOGL is estimated to have formed 20 million years ago and consists of slabs from the Tethys Ocean.

Statement 3 is not correct: The gravity hole is not a region of the ocean where the effects of gravity are less than usual.

20 / 20

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Scheme- Purpose

WISE-KIRAN – To offer financial assistance and research grants to women scientists in biotechnology.
Indo-US Fellowship for Women in STEM- to provide research opportunities for Indian women scientists.
GATI (Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions)- To promote provide equal opportunities and supportive environments for women in STEM.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Pair 1 is incorrect match: WISE-KIRAN is not specifically focused on biotechnology. It is a government program that encourages women's participation in science and technology through scholarships, fellowships, and training.

Pair 2 is correct match : The Indo-US Fellowship for Women in STEM does provide collaborative research opportunities for Indian women scientists in the United States, fostering international collaborations with leading institutions.

Pair 3 is correct match : GATI promotes gender sensitivity in Indian science and technology by facilitating equal opportunities and supportive environments for women in STEM.

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Created on July 19, 2023 By

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Week- 1st July Current Affair Quiz

1 / 20

Q Consider the following statements regarding monitoring of volcanic activity.

GPS is used to measure centimeter-scale movements on the surface of volcanoes, indicating the presence of underlying pressure.
Tiltmeters detect changes in the slope of a volcano, providing insights into magma movement and volcanic "breathing."
Seismographs are employed to detect tremors caused by magma movement below the surface of volcanoes.
Infrared cameras capture heat emissions from volcanoes, helping identify areas of increased activity.

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

B) Only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

C) Only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

D) All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Explanation:

Volcanic activity is monitored using a combination of instruments.

GPS measures surface movements, indicating underlying pressure.

Tiltmeters detect changes in the slope, providing insights into magma movement.

Seismographs capture tremors caused by magma movement. However, infrared cameras are not typically used for monitoring volcanic activity.

2 / 20

Q Consider the following statements regarding monitoring of International Criminal Court (ICC)

The ICC is located in The Hague and serves as the court of last resort for prosecuting genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
The ICC was established as the first permanent international criminal court through a treaty, the Rome Statute, to combat impunity for serious international crimes.
The ICC's funding primarily comes from voluntary contributions, including those from governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
The ICC has universal territorial jurisdiction, allowing it to investigate and prosecute crimes committed anywhere in the world.

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

B) Only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

C) Only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

D) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is located in The Hague and serves as the court of last resort for prosecuting genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.

It was established as the first permanent international criminal court through the Rome Statute 2002.

The ICC's funding primarily comes from voluntary contributions. However, the ICC does not have universal territorial jurisdiction and can only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states, or crimes referred to the Court by the United Nations Security Council.

The statement about the ICC having universal territorial jurisdiction (statement 4) is incorrect.

3 / 20

Q Consider the following statements:

India joined the Minerals Security Partnership with the US, France, and the UK, which can help establish a trilateral strategic partnership for a reliable lithium supply chain.
India has significant lithium reserves in Jammu & Kashmir (Salal-Haimana area), Rajasthan (Revant Hill), and Karnataka (Mandya district).
The countries with the largest lithium reserves are Chile, Australia, and Bolivia (Lithium Triangle).

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.

C) Only statement 3 is correct.

D) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation: India's membership in the Minerals Security Partnership (statement 1) provides an opportunity to establish a trilateral strategic partnership and secure a reliable lithium supply chain.

India also has substantial lithium reserves in Jammu & Kashmir, Rajasthan, and Karnataka (statement 2), which contribute to its lithium resources.

The countries with the largest lithium reserves are Chile, Australia, and Bolivia (statement 3), collectively known as the Lithium Triangle.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

4 / 20

Q Consider the following statements regarding National and State Indicator Framework:

NIF (National Indicator Framework) is developed at the national level and aligns with the global SDG indicators, while SIF (State Indicator Framework) is developed at the state/union territory level.
NIF focuses on tracking the progress of SDGs at the national level, while SIF focuses on specific indicators relevant to each state/union territory.

Choose the correct options:

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.

C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

D) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct.

Explanation: NIF (National Indicator Framework) and SIF (State Indicator Framework) play crucial roles in monitoring the implementation of SDGs in India.

Statement 1 is correct as NIF is developed at the national level to align with the global SDG indicators, while SIF is developed at the state/union territory level to cater to local priorities and conditions.

Statement 2 is also correct as NIF focuses on tracking the overall progress of SDGs at the national level, while SIF delves into specific indicators that are relevant to each state/union territory.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

5 / 20

Q Consider the following statements regarding Statistics Day.

The objective of Statistics Day is to honor the contributions of Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis and promote awareness about statistics in various fields.
Statistics Day aims to highlight the importance of anthropometry studies conducted by Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in India.

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.

C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

D) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct.

Explanation: Statistics Day, celebrated annually on June 29th in India, serves two important purposes.

Statement 1 is correct as the primary objective of Statistics Day is to honor the contributions of Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis and raise awareness, especially among the younger generation, about the role and significance of statistics in socio-economic planning and policy formulation for the country's development.

It aims to highlight the importance of statistics in various fields such as economics, planning, and policymaking. Statement 2, however, is incorrect.

Although Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis made pioneering studies in anthropometry in India, Statistics Day does not specifically focus on highlighting his work in this area. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

6 / 20

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The number of days with temperatures exceeding 30 degrees Celsius has decreased in recent years.
Marine heatwaves in the Indian Ocean have become more frequent and are now an annual occurrence.
Amplification of climate risks occurs when multiple climate-related factors interact, intensifying the overall risks associated with climate change

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statements 1 and 2 only

(d) Statements 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The number of days with temperatures exceeding 30 degrees Celsius has increased in recent years.

Statement 2 is correct: Marine heatwaves in the Indian Ocean have become more frequent and are now an annual occurrence.

Statement 3 is correct: Amplification of climate risks occurs when multiple climate-related factors interact, intensifying the overall risks associated with climate change.

7 / 20

Q With reference to the provision of piped, potable water in rural India, consider the following statements:

Approximately 64% of rural households in India are currently connected to piped water.
The COVID-19 pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war have significantly impeded the progress of the 'Har Ghar Jal' missions.
Only 35% of villages in India have been certified as 'Har Ghar Jal' with full household connections.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Approximately 64% of rural households in India are currently connected to piped water, as mentioned in the passage.

Statement 2 is correct: The passage states that the COVID-19 pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war have impeded the progress of the 'Har Ghar Jal' missions.

Statement 3 is correct: Only 1,68,157 villages have been reported by States as ‘Har Ghar Jal’ and only 59,000 or about 35% have been ‘certified’ — meaning their gram panchayats have formally acknowledged compliance.

8 / 20

Q With reference to NATO and NATO Plus, consider the following statements:

NATO Plus is an officially recognized concept within NATO, consisting of five treaty allies of the U.S. as members.
The focus of NATO Plus is primarily on containing China.
India is currently a member of the NATO Plus framework.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: NATO Plus is not an officially recognized concept within NATO itself.

Statement 2 is correct: The focus of NATO Plus is primarily on containing China and addressing global defense cooperation.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not currently a member of the NATO Plus framework.

NATO is a transatlantic military alliance of 31 countries, with the majority of members from Europe. After the dissolution of the Soviet Union and the end of the Cold War, many thought that NATO would lose its relevance. On the contrary, NATO has not only survived but also expanded, with Finland joining as its 31st member (April 2023), and Sweden waiting in the wings.

“NATO plus” refers to a security arrangement of NATO and the five treaty allies of the U.S. — Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea as members — to enhance “global defence cooperation” and win the “strategic competition with the Chinese Communist Party”. Interestingly, the term ‘NATO Plus’ is not an officially recognised or established concept within NATO itself, but has been used in discussions and debates regarding the potential expansion of the alliance

The concept of NATO Plus involves enhanced cooperation between NATO and the five treaty allies of the U.S. (Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea) to strengthen global defense cooperation and strategic competition with China. It is important to note that India is not part of the NATO Plus framework at present.

9 / 20

QWith reference to the Bonn Climate Change Conference, consider the following statements:

The Global Stocktake under the Paris Agreement assesses collective progress towards long-term global goals, including greenhouse gas reduction and climate finance.
The Bonn Conference emphasized the need for developing countries to be more ambitious in emission reduction and to receive adequate finance from developed countries.
'Just transition pathways' aim to ensure a fair and inclusive transformation towards net zero emissions by 2070.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Global Stocktake under the Paris Agreement assesses collective progress towards long-term global goals, including greenhouse gas reduction and climate finance.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bonn Conference emphasized the need for developing countries to be more ambitious in emission reduction and to receive adequate finance from developed countries.

Statement 3 is correct: 'Just transition pathways' aim to ensure a fair and inclusive transformation towards net zero emissions by 2070.

Bonn Climate Change Conference was the last big milestone in climate negotiations before the first Global Stocktake under the Paris Agreement at COP28 (Conference of the Parties 28) in Dubai in December.

The Global Stocktake is mandated under Article 14 (1) of the Paris Agreement to assess collective progress towards long-term global goals. This includes progress on greenhouse gas reduction, building resilience to climate impacts, and securing finance to address climate crisis.

Parties to the Paris Agreement had introduced ‘just transition pathways’ at COP27.

‘Just Transition’ means that the transformational pathways need to be carried out in a way that is as fair and inclusive as possible to everyone concerned. India is concerned about the difficulties it is going to face in decoupling its economic development from greenhouse gas emissions. India also stated that the route to ‘just transition’ needs to be clubbed with the means of implementation.

India’s climate policy is derived from the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities. In its long-term low emission development strategy at COP27, India underlined the need for “financing” a ‘just transition’ in sectors such as energy and transport in order to reach net zero emissions by 2070.

10 / 20

Q With reference to Greedflation, consider the following statements:

Greedflation refers to price inflation caused by corporate greed for high profits.
Proponents of the Greedflation theory argue that corporate profit margins have risen significantly since the pandemic, contributing to high inflation.
Efforts to rein in market power of large corporations and prevent price hikes have been advocated by proponents of the Greedflation theory.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Greedflation refers to price inflation caused by corporate greed for high profits.
Statement 2 is correct: Proponents of the greedflation theory argue that corporate profit margins have risen significantly since the pandemic, contributing to high inflation.
Statement 3 is correct: Efforts to rein in market power of large corporations and prevent price hikes have been advocated by proponents of the greedflation theory.

11 / 20

With reference to the National Archives of India (NAI), consider the following statements:

The NAI holds records of the government and its organizations only and does not receive classified documents.
The NAI is the repository of all non-current government records and functions under the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The NAI keeps and conserves records of the government and its organizations only, and does not receive classified documents.

Statement 2 is correct. The NAI functions under the Ministry of Culture and is the repository of all non-current government records.

12 / 20

With reference to the shift in Earth's axis of rotation due to excessive groundwater extraction, consider the following statements:

The excessive extraction of groundwater has caused a shift in the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east.
The shift in the Earth's axis due to groundwater extraction has significant real-life consequences.
Human activities, including excessive groundwater extraction, can contribute to the phenomenon of polar motion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Statements 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The study states that the excessive extraction of groundwater between 1993 and 2010 has caused a shift in the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east.
Statement 2 is not correct. Although the shift in the Earth's axis due to groundwater extraction is not significant enough to have real-life consequences, it has contributed to global sea level rise. Therefore, it does not have direct significant real-life consequences.
Statement 3 is correct . Human activities, including excessive groundwater extraction, can contribute to the phenomenon of polar motion. While natural factors like rocks circulating inside Earth's mantle and ocean currents also play a role, human activities impact this phenomenon.
The excessive extraction of groundwater has shifted the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east at a rate of 4.36 cm per year, according to a study. Although the shift is not significant enough to have real-life consequences, it has contributed to global sea level rise. This phenomenon, known as "polar motion," occurs naturally due to changes in mass distribution. Human activities, including groundwater extraction, have impacted the planet's axis.

13 / 20

Consider the following statements.

State legislatures can make law prescribing a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state.
Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

14 / 20

With reference to World Environment Day and the concept of Net Zero State, consider the following statements:

World Environment Day is celebrated every year on the 5th of June, and the theme for 2023 is "Solution to Plastic Pollution."
A Net Zero State refers to a country's emissions being compensated by the removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. India aims to achieve net zero emissions by 2070.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

15 / 20

With reference to the Kavach system, consider the following statements:

Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System for the Indian Railways.
It is designed to bring a train to a halt automatically when it notices another train on the same line within a prescribed distance.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Both the statements are correct.

Developed by: Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) of the Ministry of Railways in collaboration with Indian industry.

16 / 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Gravitational waves were first directly observed in 2016.
India's Giant Metre wave Radio Telescope played a role in the recent discovery of gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves can be detected using electromagnetic radiation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 only

(b) Statement 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational waves were first directly observed in 2016.

Statement 2 is correct: India's Giant Metre wave Radio Telescope was involved in the recent discovery of gravitational waves.

17 / 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Chandrayaan-3 is integrated with the Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) for its upcoming mission.
Chandrayaan-3 aims to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has integrated Chandrayaan-3 with the Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) for its upcoming mission.

18 / 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was initially formed by the Shanghai Five countries, which included Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan.
The SCO aims to promote regional security, reduce border troops, and combat terrorism.
India and Pakistan became observers of the SCO in 2005 and full members in 2017.
Iran joined the SCO as a full member in 2023.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1& 2 only

(b) 2 & 4 only

(d) All are correct

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Shanghai Five countries were Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan.

Statement 2 is correct: The SCO focuses on regional security, reducing border troops, and combating terrorism.

Statement 3 is correct: India and Pakistan joined the SCO as observers in 2005 and became full members in 2017.

Statement 4 is correct: Iran has recently joined the SCO as a full member in July 2023.

19 / 20

Q Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant is often mentioned in the news is located in which of the following countries?

(a)Russia

(b)Belarus

(d) Ukraine

20 / 20

Q Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Wildlife Protection in India?

(a) Chinkara or Indian gazelle is the State animal of Gujarat.

(b) According to Article 5A (g) of the Constitution, it is a fundamental duty of citizens to protect wildlife and show compassion towards all living creatures.

(d) Section 55(c) of the Wildlife Protection Act empowers the court to take cognisance of an offence on the complaint of a private person.

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect. Chinkara or Indian gazelle is the State animal of Rajasthan. Rest all are correct.

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June Month

Created on June 24, 2023 By

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Week-3rd June Current Affair Quiz

1 / 35

Q Which country has been recognised as the most gender-equal country for the 14th consecutive year?

A) India

B) Pakistan

C) Bangladesh

D) Iceland

Explanation: The correct answer is D) Iceland. The passage mentions that Iceland was recognized as the most gender-equal country for the 14th consecutive year, having closed over 90% of its gender gap. Therefore, option D is the correct country mentioned in the passage.

2 / 35

Q According to the World Economic Forum's Gender Gap Report, 2023, what is India's ranking in terms of gender parity?

A) 135

B) 127

C) 142

D) 59

Explanation: The correct answer is B) 127. The passage states that India was ranked at 127 out of 146 countries in terms of gender parity according to the World Economic Forum's Gender Gap Report, 2023. Therefore, option B is the correct ranking mentioned in the passage.

3 / 35

Q Which of the following statements about the Mesolithic period is true?

A) It was a time when agriculture and settled communities emerged.

B) Stone tools from this period were large and referred to as microliths.

C) People primarily relied on agriculture for their survival.

D) The Mesolithic period existed between the Paleolithic and Neolithic periods.

Explanation: The correct answer is D) The Mesolithic period existed between the Paleolithic and Neolithic periods. The passage states that the Mesolithic period, also known as the Middle Stone Age, existed between the Paleolithic (Old Stone Age) and the Neolithic (New Stone Age). Therefore, option D is the correct statement. The other options are incorrect based on the information provided in the passage.

4 / 35

Q Which of the following is NOT an application of the Einstein Telescope?

A) Exploring the Universe through gravitational waves.

B) Testing general relativity near black-hole horizons.

C) Detecting intermediate-mass black holes.

D) Studying the cosmic microwave background radiation.

Explanation: The correct answer is D) Studying the cosmic microwave background radiation. The passage mentions several applications of the Einstein Telescope, such as exploring the Universe through gravitational waves, addressing fundamental questions in physics and cosmology, including testing general relativity near black-hole horizons and studying quantum gravity. It also states that the telescope will be capable of detecting intermediate-mass black holes. However, there is no mention of studying the cosmic microwave background radiation as an

5 / 35

Q Which of the following statements about the Einstein Telescope is true?

A) It is currently operational and detecting gravitational waves.

B) It is expected to be less sensitive than the Advanced Virgo and Advanced LIGO detectors

C) It will have a larger interferometer size and improved sensitivity compared to existing detectors.

D) Its primary purpose is to study the cosmic microwave background radiation.

Explanation: The correct answer is C) It will have a larger interferometer size and improved sensitivity compared to existing detectors. The passage mentions that the Einstein Telescope is a highly advanced observatory for detecting gravitational waves that is currently in the planning stage. It states that the telescope will enhance sensitivity by increasing the interferometer's size from 3km (Virgo) to 10km and implementing new technologies. Therefore, option C is the correct statement.

6 / 35

Q With reference to the ports in India, consider the following statements:

1. The share of major ports in total transactions was less than the non-major ports in FY23.

2. Andhra Pradesh does not have a major port.

3. Many state governments have given non major ports on lease to private partners.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation: The correct answer is A)

— India’s major ports handled the highest-ever cargo at 795 million tonnes in 2022-23 with transactions worth about Rs 5,000 crore, the shipping ministry has surpassed its FY23 asset monetisation target of about Rs 3,700 crore.

— The major ports have handled the highest-ever cargo in the history of the ports at 795 million metric tonnes. This is 10 per cent higher than the previous year’s cargo handled in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— India has 12 major ports — Deendayal (Kandla), Mumbai, Mormugao, New Mangalore, Cochin, Chennai, Ennore (Kamarajar), Tuticorin (V O Chidambaranar), Visakhapatnam, Paradip and Kolkata (including Haldia) and Jawaharlal Nehru Port. Hence, statement 2 is not correct

— The major ports have recorded higher annual growth than that of non-major ports. The share of major ports in the total cargo was 54 per cent and non-major ports were 46 per cent in FY22. The share of major ports rose to 55 per cent and that of non-major ports fell to 45 per cent in FY23.

— Non-major ports are administered by state governments. Many state governments have given such ports on lease to private partners. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

7 / 35

Q With reference to the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. In this scheme, all resident individuals are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year.

2. Minors are not included in this scheme.

3. Remittance for trading in foreign exchange abroad is prohibited.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation: The correct answer is B)

Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

The resident individuals can avail of foreign exchange facility for the purposes mentioned in Para 1 of Schedule III of FEM (CAT) Amendment Rules 2015, dated May 26, 2015, within the limit of USD 2,50,000 only.

The Scheme was introduced on February 4, 2004, with a limit of USD 25,000. The LRS limit has been revised in stages consistent with prevailing macro and micro economic conditions.

If the remitter is a minor, the LRS declaration form must be countersigned by the minor’s natural guardian.

The Scheme is not available to corporates, partnership firms, HUF, Trusts, etc.

The remittance facility under the Scheme is not available for the following:

(i) Remittance for any purpose specifically prohibited under Schedule-I (like the purchase of lottery tickets/sweep stakes, proscribed magazines, etc.) or any item restricted under Schedule II of Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000.

(ii) Remittance from India for margins or margin calls to overseas exchanges / overseas counterparty.

(iii) Remittances for the purchase of FCCBs issued by Indian companies in the overseas secondary market.

(iv) Remittance for trading in foreign exchange abroad. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

(v) Capital account remittances, directly or indirectly, to countries identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as “non-cooperative countries and territories”, from time to time.

(vi) Remittances directly or indirectly to those individuals and entities identified as posing a significant risk of committing acts of terrorism as advised separately by the Reserve Bank to the banks.

(vii) Gifting by a resident to another resident, in foreign currency, for the credit of the latter’s foreign currency account held abroad under LRS.

8 / 35

Q What is the main component of the biodegradable supercapacitor developed by scientists at GERMI?

A) Seaweed

B) Cellulose

C) Lipids

D) Bioactive compounds

Explanation: The correct answer is A) Seaweed. The biodegradable supercapacitor developed by scientists at GERMI is made from seaweed, specifically marine macroalgae. Seaweed is rich in valuable components such as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and bioactive compounds. However, in this context, seaweed is the main component used to create the biodegradable supercapacitor.

9 / 35

Q Which architectural styles are combined in the Kamakhya Temple?

A) Nagara and Dravidian

B) Saracenic and Rajput

C) Nagara and Saracenic

D) Dravidian and Mughal

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Nagara and Saracenic. The Kamakhya Temple combines the traditional Nagara or North Indian architectural style with the Saracenic or Mughal style, resulting in the unique Nilachala Style of Architecture.

10 / 35

Q Where is the Ambubachi Mela celebrated?

Guwahati, Assam

Kolkata, West Bengal

Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh

Puri, Odisha

Explanation: The correct answer is A) Guwahati, Assam. The Ambubachi Mela is celebrated at the Kamakhya Temple, which is located on Nilachal Hill near the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River in Guwahati, Assam.

11 / 35

Q Which of the following statements about the Al-Hakim Mosque is true?

a) It is located in Yemen.

b) It was primarily constructed using stone.

c) The mosque's main entrance is situated on the eastern facade.

d) It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Explanation: The correct answer is d) It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. According to the given information, the Al-Hakim Mosque, located in Cairo, Egypt, was recognized and inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1979. Therefore, option d) is the correct statement about the mosque.

12 / 35

QvWhich of the following statements is true about the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)?

a) It is responsible for the manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs in India.

b) It is a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

c) It evaluates drug safety, efficacy, quality, and regulatory policies

d) It is part of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO).

Explanation: The correct answer is c) It evaluates drug safety, efficacy, quality, and regulatory policies. According to the given information, the DTAB is the highest decision-making body on technical matters related to drugs in the country. It evaluates various aspects of drugs, including safety, efficacy, quality, and regulatory policies.

13 / 35

Q Which of the following is a recommendation of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)?

a) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of Ketoprofen

b) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of Aceclofenac

c) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of both Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac

d) Recommending the use of Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac in certain medical conditions

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of both Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac. According to the given information, the DTAB has recommended the ban on both Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac.

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Q What is the role of the Y chromosome?

a) It determines the biological male sex.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It gradually replaced the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

Explanation: The correct answer is a) It determines the biological male sex. The information provided states that the Y chromosome, also known as the "master of maleness," determines the biological male sex and carries genes that play a role in sex determination and other male-specific traits.

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Q What is the role of the Y chromosome?

a) It determines the biological male sex.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It gradually replaced the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

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Q What have researchers discovered about the Y chromosome?

a) It possesses genes linked to ageing and lifespan regulation.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits.

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It is gradually being replaced by the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

Explanation: The correct answer is a) It possesses genes linked to ageing and lifespan regulation. The key findings state that researchers have discovered that the Y chromosome possesses genes crucial for various biological functions, including those related to ageing and the regulation of lifespan.

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Q What have researchers discovered about the Y chromosome?

a) It possesses genes linked to ageing and lifespan regulation.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits.

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It is gradually being replaced by the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

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Q Where is the jellyfish galaxy JO206 located?

a) 700 million kilometers away from Earth

b) 700 million light-years away from Earth

c) In the Aquarius constellation

d) Near the Hubble Space Telescope

Explanation: The correct answer is b) 700 million light-years away from Earth. According to the context, the jellyfish galaxy JO206 is situated approximately 700 million light-years away from Earth.

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Q What are Geo Heritage Sites (GHSs)?

a) Sites of historical significance

b) Sites with ecological importance

c) Sites with cultural heritage value

d) Sites of geological and paleontological significance

Explanation: The correct answer is d) Sites of geological and paleontological significance. According to the context, Geo Heritage Sites are remarkable locations of geological, geomorphological, mineralogical, petrological, and paleontological significance. They are designated and protected by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) as geo-heritage sites or national geological monuments.

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Q Where is India's largest natural arch formation located?

a) Tirumala hills, Tirupati

b) Andaman and Nicobar

c) Sundargarh forest division in Odisha

d) Kenduadihi block in Sundargarh district

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Sundargarh forest division in Odisha. According to the context, the Geological Survey of India identified India's largest natural arch formation in the Kanika range of Sundargarh forest division.

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Q Which region of the human brain shows a higher susceptibility to Covid infections?

a) Cerebrum

b) Cerebellum

c) Brainstem

d) Hippocampus

Explanation: The correct answer is b) Cerebellum. The passage states that a recently conducted study found that the cerebellum, a region of the human brain, exhibits a higher susceptibility to Covid infections compared to other brain regions.

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Q Which of the following is true about reef sharks?

a) They are herbivorous species.

b) They have no significant role in marine ecosystems.

c) They serve as indicator species for the health of marine ecosystems.

d) They are found only in polar regions.

Explanation: The correct answer is c) They serve as indicator species for the health of marine ecosystems. Reef sharks play a crucial role in shaping Caribbean reef communities and serve as indicator species for the health of marine ecosystems. Their presence or absence can reflect the overall condition of the reef environment.

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Q Which award was instituted by the Government of India as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi's ideals?

a) Bharat Ratna

b) Padma Shri

c) Gandhi Peace Prize

d) Nobel Peace Prize

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Gandhi Peace Prize. The Gandhi Peace Prize was instituted by the Government of India in 1995 on the occasion of the 125th Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi as a tribute to his ideals. It is an annual award that recognizes individuals and organizations for their contributions to peace and social transformation.

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Q What is the primary factor contributing to low milk productivity in India's dairy sector?

a) Inefficient breeding practices

b) Fodder inflation

c) Demand destruction during the Covid-19 pandemic

d) Lumpy skin disease outbreak

Explanation: The correct answer is a) Inefficient breeding practices. Inefficient breeding practices lead to low productivity and genetic variability, ultimately resulting in reduced milk production. Many farmers still rely on traditional breeding methods and lack access to modern technologies for genetic improvement.

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Q Which program contributed to the transformation of India from a milk importer to the world's largest producer?

a) Operation Flood

b) Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS)

c) Rashtriya Gokul Mission

d) National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD)

Explanation: The correct answer is a) Operation Flood. Operation Flood facilitated the distribution of quality milk across 700 towns and cities through a National Milk Grid. It played a significant role in reducing the need for milk imports and transforming India into the world's largest milk producer.

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Q Where is the Nova Kakhovka dam located?

A) Russia

B) Belarus

C) Ukraine

D) Turkey

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Ukraine. The Nova Kakhovka dam is located in Ukraine. It is part of the Kakhovka hydroelectric power plant, which was built on the Dnipro River during the Soviet era. The dam creates a large reservoir known as the Kakhovka Sea. It is situated in the Kherson region, with the left (southern) bank controlled by Russia and the right (northern) bank controlled by Ukraine. The dam plays a significant role in hydroelectric power generation, water management, navigation and transport, and recreational activities.

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Q Which country is a founding member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

A) United States of America

B) United Kingdom

C) India

D) China

Explanation: The correct answer is C) India. India is one of the founding members of the IMF, which was established in 1944. As a founding member, India has played an active role in the organization and has received loans from the IMF in the past to address balance of payments deficits. The Finance Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Governor on the IMF's Board of Governors, and the RBI Governor serves as the Alternate Governor at the IMF

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Q What is the main objective of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

A) Facilitate international trade and promote exchange rate stability

B) To highlight the challenges faced by global conflicts

C) To emphasize the importance of equal opportunities for refugees

D) To raise awareness about the rising number of forcibly displaced individuals

Explanation: The correct answer is B) Ensure financial stability and reduce global poverty. The IMF's objectives include fostering global monetary cooperation, ensuring financial stability, promoting high employment and sustainable economic growth, reducing global poverty, and supporting macroeconomic growth. While facilitating international trade and providing policy advice and financing for developing countries are also functions of the IMF, the primary objective is to ensure financial stability and reduce poverty on a global scale.

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Q What is the Global Compact on Refugees?

A) A document outlining the challenges faced by refugees globally

B) To highlight the challenges faced by global conflicts

C) To emphasize the importance of equal opportunities for refugees

D) To raise awareness about the rising number of forcibly displaced individuals

Explanation: The correct answer is C) A call for solidarity and a whole-of-society approach towards refugees. The Global Compact on Refugees acknowledges the displacement crisis and emphasises the need for collective action. It recognises the responsibility of governments, individuals, private sector, NGOs, and community-based organisation's in supporting host countries, promoting self-reliance, and exploring long-term solutions.

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Q What is the purpose of World Refugee Day?

To commemorate the courage and resilience of refugees worldwide

To highlight the challenges faced by global conflicts

To emphasize the importance of equal opportunities for refugees

To raise awareness about the rising number of forcibly displaced individuals

Explanation: The correct answer is A) To commemorate the courage and resilience of refugees worldwide. World Refugee Day is a time to honor the bravery and resilience of individuals facing forced displacement. It serves as a reminder of our collective responsibility and the importance of welcoming refugees into our communities.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is correct?

A) The PMKSY aims to reduce farm productivity and maximize resource utilization in India.

B) The PMKSY does not include any component related to irrigation infrastructure investment.

C) The Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) scheme under the PMKSY focuses on improving water-use efficiency and promoting precision irrigation techniques.

D) The Watershed Development (WDC) component of the PMKSY is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Explanation: The correct statement is option c. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) includes the Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) scheme, which aims to improve water-use efficiency and encourage precision irrigation techniques. The PDMC scheme is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare as one of the additional components of the PMKSY. This scheme focuses on enhancing agricultural productivity by optimizing the utilization of water resources.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Electricity Act 2003 and its impact on India's power sector is incorrect?

A) Private investment in power generation increased significantly after the implementation of the act.

B) Long-term power purchase agreements (PPAs) through competitive procurement became prevalent.

C) The Electricity Act 2003 aimed to ensure electricity supply to selected consumers only.

D) The act led to the restructuring of State Electricity Boards and the separation of power generation, transmission, and distribution into distinct entities.

Explanation: The correct statement is option C. The Electricity Act 2003 aimed to ensure electricity supply to all consumers, not just selected consumers. The act introduced significant changes in India's power sector, including the restructuring of State Electricity Boards and the separation of power generation, transmission, and distribution into distinct entities. This restructuring aimed to enhance competition, protect consumer interests, and ensure electricity supply to all. Private investment in power generation increased rapidly, and long-term power purchase agreements (PPAs) through competitive procurement became prevalent, leading to market-driven prices that were lower than anticipated, benefiting consumers. Therefore, option C, which suggests that the act aimed to ensure electricity supply to selected consumers only, is incorrect.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) is correct?

A) The GMRT is a visual telescope used to observe celestial objects in visible light.

B) The GMRT is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and is operated by the National Centre of Radio Astrophysics (NCRA).

C) The GMRT consists of 30 dish-type antennas, each with a diameter of 25 meters.

D) The GMRT recently underwent an upgrade and is now referred to as the upgraded Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (uGMRT).

Explanation: The correct statement is option D. The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) recently underwent an upgrade and is now referred to as the upgraded Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (uGMRT). The GMRT is not a visual telescope but a radio telescope used to observe radio astrophysical phenomena. It is located in Khodad, 80 km north of Pune, Maharashtra, and is managed by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and operated under the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR). The National Centre of Radio Astrophysics (NCRA), which is part of TIFR in Pune, oversees the telescope's operations. The GMRT consists of 30 dish-type antennas, each with a diameter of 45 meters, and it holds the title of the world's largest radio telescope operating at meter wavelength.

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Q What is the primary purpose of the Kakhovka Dam's reservoir?

a) Generation of hydroelectric power

b) Supplying water to the Crimean Peninsula

c) Providing cooling water for the Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant

d) Controlling flooding in the war zone

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Q Which river is the Kakhovka Dam located on?

a) Danube River

b) Volga River

c) Dnieper River

d) Rhine River

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Created on June 24, 2023 By

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Week-2nd June Current Affair Quiz