Monthly Current Affairs Quiz

Created on July 19, 2023 By

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July Month, Current Affair Quiz

1 / 55

With reference to the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, consider the following statements:

The Act was enacted in August 2003 to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management.
The Act sets the fiscal deficit target for the Central government at 3% of the GDP.
The Act allows states to exceed their annual budget deficits without any restrictions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct. The FRBM Act was enacted to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management.

Statement 2 is correct. The Act initially set the fiscal deficit target for the Central government at 3% of the GDP.

Statement 3 is not correct. The Act requires states to limit their annual budget deficits to 3% of their Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), so they cannot exceed their deficits without restrictions.

2 / 55

Q With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill 2023, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a)Data Fiduciary is any person who alone or in conjunction with other persons determines the purpose and means of the processing of personal data.

(b)Data Principal means any individual to whom the personal data relates and where such individual is a child includes the parents or lawful guardian of such a child.

(c)Data Processor means any person who processes personal data on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

(d)None of the above.

Explanation:

• Personal data: Data about an identifiable individual.

• Data Fiduciary: Person determining the purpose and means of processing personal data.

• Processing: Automated operations on digital personal data.

• Data Principal: Individual to whom the personal data relates.

• Data Processor: Person processing personal data on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

3 / 55

Q With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill 2023, which of the following is the range of penalties for non-compliance?

(a) Rs. 10000 to Rs. 250 Crores

(b) Rs. 500 to Rs. 150 Crores

(d) Rs. 1 Lakh to Rs 100 Crores

Correct Answer: (a) Rs. 10000 to Rs. 250 Crores

Explanation:

Penalties for non-compliance range from up to Rs 10,000 for violating duties to up to Rs 250 crore for data breaches.

4 / 55

Diarrhoea can be caused by

(a) Bacteria

(b) Viruses

(d) All of the above

Explanation:

A three-year surveillance study from March 2017 to February 2020 in Kolkata has found an amoeba pathogen that previously did not cause any amoebiasis (a form of diarrhoea) in humans has now become pathogenic.

Diarrhoea can be caused by bacteria, viruses and amoeba pathogens.

In the study, the researchers found nearly 5% of patients with diarrhoea were caused by different Entamoeba species and over 3% of patients were infected with E. moshkovskii.

5 / 55

Kasol-Tirthan Valley, is located in

a) Jammu and Kashmir

b) Sikkim

c) Himachal Pradesh

d) Uttarakhand

Explanation:

Kasol-Tirthan Valley is a picturesque destination in Himachal Pradesh, India. Kasol, known as "Mini Israel," offers stunning mountain views, riverside camping, and a vibrant backpacking culture.

Tirthan Valley, nestled in the Great Himalayan National Park, is known for its pristine rivers, waterfalls, and trekking trails.

It is a paradise for nature lovers and adventure enthusiasts seeking tranquility and scenic beauty in the lap of the Himalayas.

6 / 55

QRegarding AIF Scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Agriculture Infra Fund Scheme (AIF) is a financing facility launched in 2020 for the creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farm assets.

The duration of the scheme is from FY2020 to FY2029 (10 years).

Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans with an interest subvention of 3% per annum.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) Statement 1 and 3 are correct.

(d) All are correct.

Statement 1 is correct because the Agriculture Infra Fund Scheme (AIF) is a financing facility launched in 2020 for the creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farm assets.

Statement 2 is correct because the duration of the scheme is from FY2020 to FY2029 10 years.

Statement 3 is correct because Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans with an interest subvention of 3% per annum. Eligible beneficiaries include farmers, FPOs, PACS, Marketing Cooperative Societies, SHGs, etc.

7 / 55

Q With reference to cicadas, which of the statements given above are incorrect?

a) Cicadas are commonly found worldwide.

(b) Cicadas have transparent wings and large eyes.

(d) Cicadas periodically emerge in large numbers, known as "cicada swarms" or "broods."

EXPLANATION:

Recently, a 'foreign' cicada commonly found in several
parts of South India has been given an Indian identity. Cicada is an insect with a distinct singing call, mainly by males to attract females. It has transparent wings, large eyes and is often found in trees. It periodically emerges in large numbers, known as "cicada swarms" or "broods"
and is commonly found worldwide. Cicadas are important for Nutrient cycling in soil, Serving as food for predators Indirectly aiding in pollination, Indicating ecosystem
health and Cultural significance

Statement 3 is incorrect: Cicadas are important for nutrient cycling in soil as they contribute to the decomposition of organic matter and facilitate nutrient release.

8 / 55

Q Which one of the following best describes the term "Sand Point" sometimes seen in the news?

(a) A geological phenomenon caused by tectonic plate movements.

(b) A small city located in the Aleutians East Borough of Alaska, USA.

(d) A geological fault line in the Pacific Ring of Fire.

EXPLANATION:
Recently, on July 15, 2023, a powerful magnitude 7.2 earthquake hit the offshore Alaska Peninsula region, particularly near Sand Point. Sand Point is a small city located in the Aleutians East Borough of Alaska, USA. The economy of Sand Point is primarily based on commercial fishing, especially for salmon, halibut and crab. The area is susceptible to earthquakes and tsunamis due to its location along the seismically active Pacific Ring of Fire.

Statement 1 is not correct: Sand Point is not a geological phenomenon caused by tectonic plate movements.
Statement 2 is correct: Sand Point is a small city located in the Aleutians East Borough of Alaska, USA.
Statement 3 is not correct: Sand Point has a commercial fishing industry and not diamond industry, it is primarily known as a city rather than an offshore region.
Statement 4 is not correct: Sand Point is not a geological fault line in the Pacific Ring of Fire.

9 / 55

Q With reference to the Kaas Plateau, which of the statements given above are incorrect?

(a) The Kaas Plateau is located in Satara District, Maharashtra.

(b) The Kaas Plateau is made of metamorphic rocks.

(d) There has been a major shift in Indian Summer Monsoons according to a study of sediments from a seasonal lake in Kaas Plateau

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: The Kaas Plateau is located in Satara District, Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kaas Plateau is made of igneous rocks not metamorphic rocks.
Statement 3 is correct: The Kaas Plateau is inscribed in the UNESCO World Natural Heritage Site list under the name of Western Ghats.
Statement 4 is correct: According to a study of sediments from a seasonal lake in Kaas Plateau, there has been a major shift in Indian Summer Monsoons.

10 / 55

Q Thermal InfraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment (TRISHNA) mission is a joint initiative of:

(a) India-France

(b) India-Japan

(d) USA-European Union

EXPLANATION:

Thermal InfraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment (TRISHNA) is a joint development by the French Space Agency (CNES) and Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The satellite will join the Franco-Indian fleet for use in climate monitoring and operational applications.

11 / 55

Consider the following statements about SAMRIDDHI Scheme:

1. The scheme will strengthen municipal revenue for infrastructure development all over India.

2. It will serve as a one-time property tax amnesty scheme for residents of authorised and regularised colonies in Delhi.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SAMRIDDHI: Property Tax Amnesty Scheme

Lieutenant Governor (L-G) Vinai Kumar Saxena launches SAMRIDDHI scheme in Delhi.

One-time scheme for property tax relief.

Targets residents of authorised and regularised colonies in Delhi.

Offers amnesty for principal tax amount of current and last five years.

Provides relaxation on penalties and outstanding dues.

12 / 55

Consider the following statements:

1. Core inflation is a measure of inflation calculated by adding the prices of food and fuel.

2. Super core inflation is calculated by removing gold and silver price inflation from core inflation.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The core inflation rate has inched to 6.2 per cent from 6.1 per cent in December and super core inflation rate has gone up to 6.3 per cent from 6.2 per cent.

Core inflation is a measure of inflation calculated by removing the prices of food and fuel because the prices of food and fuel prices fluctuate massively. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Super core inflation is calculated by removing gold and silver price inflation from core inflation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

13 / 55

Consider the following countries

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. India

4. Japan

How many of the above countries are members of the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Correct Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

UK agrees to join the Comprehensive and Progressive
Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)
as 12^th member.

Aims to build global ties post-Brexit departure from the EU.

CPTPP:

Free trade agreement (FTA) established in 2018.

11 member countries: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile,

Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru,

Singapore, and Vietnam.

Does not have a single market for goods or services, no regulatory harmonization like the EU.

14 / 55

Q Nord Stream Pipeline connects which of the following countries?

(a) Russia-Germany

(b) Russia-France

(d) Ukraine-Poland

Explanation:

Nord Stream 1:

Underwater gas pipeline from Russia to Germany via Baltic Sea.

Majority owned by Gazprom, supplies Russian gas to Germany.

Nord Stream 2:

Proposed $11B pipeline from Russia to Germany.

Carries 55 billion cubic meters of gas per year.

Gas Supply to Germany:

Germany is Russia's largest European gas consumer.

Majority of Russian gas enters Germany through Nord Stream Pipeline.

Germany's share of Russian gas supplies: 55% in 2021, now at 35%.

15 / 55

Q Which of the following lakes is shared by three riparian countries, Kenya, Tanzania and Uganda, with Rwanda and Burundi being part of the upper watershed draining into the lake?

(a) Lake Malavi

(b) Lake Tanganyika

(d) Lake Victoria

Explanation:

Lake Victoria is shared by three riparian countries: Kenya, Tanzania, and Uganda, with Rwanda and Burundi being part of the upper watershed draining into the lake.

This body of water has the potential to be an economic powerhouse, capable of supporting subsistence and market economies and safeguarding the future of significant population.

16 / 55

Q With reference to ISRO's launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

ISRO has three classes of launch vehicles: PSLV, GSLV, and SSLV.

The GSLV is used to launch heavier payloads and can reach higher orbits.

The LVM-3, also known as Launch Vehicle Mark 3, is the most powerful configuration of PSLV.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has three classes of launch vehicles: the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV), and the new Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).

PSLV has a famous reputation as a “workhorse”, with a very low failure rate. The PSLV can lift up to 3.8 tonnes to low earth orbit.
Statement 1 is correct: ISRO has three classes of launch vehicles: PSLV, GSLV, and SSLV.

Statement 2 is correct: The GSLV is used to launch heavier payloads and can reach higher orbits.

Statement 3 is not correct: The LVM-3 is the most powerful configuration of GSLV, not PSLV.

17 / 55

With reference to the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM-3), consider the following statements:

The first stage of LVM-3 consists of two S200 boosters that use liquid fuels.

The second stage of LVM-3 is powered by two Vikas engines, which use liquid fuel.

The uppermost final stage of LVM-3 is powered by a cryogenic engine that burns liquefied hydrogen with liquefied oxygen.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the first stage of LVM-3 consists of two S200 boosters which uses solid fuel known as hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene.

Statement 2 is correct as the second stage of LVM-3 is powered by two Vikas engines using liquid fuel.

Statement 3 is correct as the uppermost final stage of LVM-3 is powered by a cryogenic engine burning liquefied hydrogen with liquefied oxygen.

18 / 55

Q With reference to forest loss in tropical areas, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Primary forests store more carbon than other forests.

(b) Primary forest loss is reversible.

(d) Tropical areas lost 4.1 million hectares of forest cover in 2022.

Explanation:

Global Forest Loss in 2022:

Tropical areas lost 4.1 million hectares of forest, equivalent to 11 football fields per minute.

Primary forest loss increased by 10% compared to the previous year.

This resulted in 2.7 billion tonnes of CO2 emissions, similar to India's annual emissions from fossil fuels.

Progress on Forest Commitments:

The world is off track to meet its goals of ending deforestation by 2030 and restoring 350 million hectares of forests.

Global deforestation needs to be reduced by 10% annually, but the current rate is still too high.

Option b is Not Correct: Primary forest loss is almost irreversible in nature.

19 / 55

Q With reference to the ‘Threads’ often mentioned in the news, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Threads is a text-based public conversation app launched by Meta (formerly Facebook).

(b) Twitter is a decentralised platform with more control over user actions and content moderation.

(d) None of the above statements is incorrect.

Explanation:

Option a is Correct: Threads is indeed a text-based public conversation app launched by Meta (formerly Facebook).

Option b is Incorrect: The statement is incorrect because Twitter is a centralised platform.

Option c is Correct: Threads, Mastodon, and potentially Bluesky do offer decentralised features and user data portability.

Option d is Correct: None of the statements other than (b) is incorrect.

20 / 55

The term ‘CROWN JEWELS’ is often mentioned in the news is related to/ in context of -

(a) WTO

(b) IMF

(d) UNSC

Explanation:

Dispute settlement system of WTO is known as WTO’s Crown Jewel.

Once a complaint is filed, disputes can be settled through mutual agreement or adjudication.

The WTO has a robust dispute settlement mechanism, with over 350 rulings issued since 1995. The process involves consultations, adjudication by panels (Adjudicating Body) and the Appellate Body, and implementation of rulings.

The WTO's Appellate Body, established in 1995, reviews appeals against judgments in trade-related disputes. It consists of seven members and focuses on legal interpretations rather than re-examining evidence. The Appellate Body can uphold, modify, or reverse the findings of the panel. Countries involved in a dispute can appeal.

21 / 55

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Scheme- Purpose

WISE-KIRAN – To offer financial assistance and research grants to women scientists in biotechnology.
Indo-US Fellowship for Women in STEM- to provide research opportunities for Indian women scientists.
GATI (Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions)- To promote provide equal opportunities and supportive environments for women in STEM.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Pair 1 is incorrect match: WISE-KIRAN is not specifically focused on biotechnology. It is a government program that encourages women's participation in science and technology through scholarships, fellowships, and training.

Pair 2 is correct match : The Indo-US Fellowship for Women in STEM does provide collaborative research opportunities for Indian women scientists in the United States, fostering international collaborations with leading institutions.

Pair 3 is correct match : GATI promotes gender sensitivity in Indian science and technology by facilitating equal opportunities and supportive environments for women in STEM.

22 / 55

With reference to Indian Ocean Geoid Low, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1 The Indian Ocean Geoid Low (IOGL) is a profound gravitational anomaly in the Indian Ocean.

2 The IOGL is estimated to have formed 20 million years ago and consists of slabs from the Tethys Ocean.

3 The gravity hole is a region of the ocean where the effects of gravity are less than usual.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 only

(b) Statement 2 and 3 only

(d) Statement 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Ocean Geoid Low (IOGL) is indeed a profound gravitational anomaly in the Indian Ocean.

Statement 2 is correct: The IOGL is estimated to have formed 20 million years ago and consists of slabs from the Tethys Ocean.

Statement 3 is not correct: The gravity hole is not a region of the ocean where the effects of gravity are less than usual.

23 / 55

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Garo people practice shifting cultivation as their primary agricultural method.
The Garo people follow a monotheistic religious belief system influenced by Islam.
The Garo people traditionally follow their own indigenous religious practices involving animism and ancestor worship.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only statement 1 is correct.

(b) Only statement 2 is correct.

(d) Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Garo people, an indigenous tribe in Northeast India and Bangladesh, practice shifting cultivation, also known as Jhum cultivation, as their primary agricultural method.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Garo people do not follow a monotheistic religious belief system influenced by Islam. They traditionally follow their own indigenous religious practices involving animism and ancestor worship.

Statement 3 is correct: The Garo people traditionally follow their own indigenous religious practices involving animism and ancestor worship.

24 / 55

Q Which of the following statements about solar shooting stars (coronal mass ejections) and coronal rain is correct?

A) Solar shooting stars are responsible for heating up the Sun's corona.

B) Coronal rain occurs when hot plasma cools and condenses in weak magnetic fields.

C) Solar shooting stars and coronal rain are unrelated phenomena.

D) Coronal rain is usually associated with inactive regions of the Sun.

Explanation:

Solar shooting stars (coronal mass ejections) are not responsible for heating up the Sun's corona, which contradicts option A.

Coronal rain occurs when hot plasma cools and condenses in strong magnetic fields, supporting option B. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Option C is incorrect as it states that the phenomena are unrelated, and

Option D is incorrect as it incorrectly associates coronal rain with inactive regions instead of active regions.

25 / 55

Q Which of the following statements about Naegleria fowleri is true?

1. Naegleria fowleri is a type of bacteria that can cause primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

2. Naegleria fowleri can enter the human body through the nose and cause inflammation and destruction of brain tissue.

Choose the correct option.

A) Only Statement 1 is true.

B) Only Statement 2 is true.

C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.

D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because Naegleria fowleri is not a type of bacteria, but a type of free-living amoeba. It is important to differentiate between amoebas and bacteria, as they are different types of microorganisms.

Statement 2 is correct. Naegleria fowleri can indeed enter the human body through the nose and reach the brain, causing inflammation and destruction of brain tissue. This infection is known as primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) and is a rare but severe condition. The colloquial term "brain-eating amoeba" is used to describe Naegleria fowleri due to its ability to affect the brain.

26 / 55

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Artemis Accords?

The Artemis Accords were introduced by NASA in 2020 as a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of outer space.
The Accords are a legally binding multilateral treaty that sets out specific rules and principles for the extraction of space resources.
India recently signed the Artemis Accords to collaborate with the US and other countries on the Artemis Program.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 3 only

(b) Statement 1 and 2 only

(d) Statement 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Artemis Accords were introduced by NASA in 2020 as a set of principles and guidelines for the civil exploration and use of outer space.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Accords are a non-binding bilateral arrangement and do not have the status of a multilateral treaty or a legally binding contract. Accords do not have the status of a multilateral treaty, or a contract nor does it set out legal principles or rules by any stretch of imagination.

Statement 3 is correct: India signed the three-year-old Artemis Accords, a US-led international partnership on planetary exploration and research. The Accords have been signed by 26 countries till now, including Japan, Australia, the UK, France, and Canada. A set of 13 principles, the Artemis Accords is closely linked to the Artemis Program, which aims to return astronauts to the lunar surface, build a space camp there, and carry out deep space exploration.

27 / 55

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Marine Biodiversity of Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) or the High Seas Treaty?

The High Seas Treaty is the third agreement to be approved under UNCLOS, after the 1994 and 1995 treaties.
The treaty aims to address issues such as increasing sea surface temperatures, overexploitation of marine biodiversity, overfishing, coastal pollution, and unsustainable practices beyond national jurisdiction.
Many developed countries, including Russia and China, oppose the treaty due to their support for private entities involved in advanced research and development in marine technology.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 only

(b) Statement 2 and 3 only

(d) Statement 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The High Seas Treaty is the third agreement to be approved under UNCLOS, after the 1994 and 1995 treaties.

Statement 2 is correct: The treaty aims to address critical issues such as increasing sea surface temperatures, overexploitation of marine biodiversity, overfishing, coastal pollution, and unsustainable practices beyond national jurisdiction.

Statement 3 is correct: Many developed countries, including Russia and China, oppose the treaty due to their support for private entities involved in advanced research and development in marine technology.

28 / 55

Q With reference to the United Nations Statistical Commission, consider the following statements:

1. India has been elected to the UN Statistical Commission beginning on 1 January 2024.

2. It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting of statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods.

3. It is a functional commission of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

4. The term of office of members is three years.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Explanation:

India has been elected to the UN Statistical Commission for a four-year term beginning on 1 January 2024. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The United Nations Statistical Commission, established in 1947, is the highest body of the global statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the world.

— It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods, including their implementation at the national and international level. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

29 / 55

Q Miyako Strait was in the news recently. The strait is located between

(a) Japan and South Korea

(b) China and Philippines

(d) Japan and China

Explanation

• Miyako Strait is a waterway between Japan and China. It is one of the international waterway for the Chinese to reach out to Pacific Ocean.

• The Miyako Strait marks a linguistic and cultural divide between the Southern and Northern Ryukyuan languages.

30 / 55

Q Kaji Nemu” is a variety of lemon which has recently got a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. It belongs to-

(a) Assam

(b) Manipur

(d) Tripura

Explanation:

“Kaji nemu (Assam lemon)” has got a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. It produces fruits all around the year having two peak seasons in a year.

It is different from other varieties of lemon in flavour, unique aroma and comparatively larger.

The sour citrus fruit is widely used in culinary, beverages, industries and medicines.

31 / 55

Q Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Wildlife Protection in India?

(a) Chinkara or Indian gazelle is the State animal of Gujarat.

(b) According to Article 5A (g) of the Constitution, it is a fundamental duty of citizens to protect wildlife and show compassion towards all living creatures.

(d) Section 55(c) of the Wildlife Protection Act empowers the court to take cognisance of an offence on the complaint of a private person.

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect. Chinkara or Indian gazelle is the State animal of Rajasthan. Rest all are correct.

32 / 55

Q Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant is often mentioned in the news is located in which of the following countries?

(a)Russia

(b)Belarus

(d) Ukraine

Explanation: Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant is located southwest of Zaporizhzhia city, along the Dnieper river in Ukraine. It was taken over by Russian forces in May 2022 and has since had to operate in conditions that threaten safety. In June, a Lithuania-based NGO named the Bellona Foundation published a report analysing the risks associated with the hostilities around the Zaporizhzhia NPP based on the facility’s design, safety measures, and the local geography.

33 / 55

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was initially formed by the Shanghai Five countries, which included Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan.
The SCO aims to promote regional security, reduce border troops, and combat terrorism.
India and Pakistan became observers of the SCO in 2005 and full members in 2017.
Iran joined the SCO as a full member in 2023.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1& 2 only

(b) 2 & 4 only

(d) All are correct

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Shanghai Five countries were Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan.

Statement 2 is correct: The SCO focuses on regional security, reducing border troops, and combating terrorism.

Statement 3 is correct: India and Pakistan joined the SCO as observers in 2005 and became full members in 2017.

Statement 4 is correct: Iran has recently joined the SCO as a full member in July 2023.

34 / 55

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Chandrayaan-3 is integrated with the Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) for its upcoming mission.
Chandrayaan-3 aims to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has integrated Chandrayaan-3 with the Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) for its upcoming mission.

Statement 2 is correct: Chandrayaan-3 aims to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface, with an indigenous lander module (LM), a propulsion module (PM), and a rover.

35 / 55

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Gravitational waves were first directly observed in 2016.
India's Giant Metre wave Radio Telescope played a role in the recent discovery of gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves can be detected using electromagnetic radiation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Statement 1 and 2 only

(b) Statement 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational waves were first directly observed in 2016.

Statement 2 is correct: India's Giant Metre wave Radio Telescope was involved in the recent discovery of gravitational waves.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Gravitational waves cannot be detected using electromagnetic radiation, as they require specialized instruments like the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory (LIGO).

36 / 55

With reference to the National Archives of India (NAI), consider the following statements:

The NAI holds records of the government and its organizations only and does not receive classified documents.
The NAI is the repository of all non-current government records and functions under the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

The National Archives of India (NAI) is the repository of non-current government records. It functions under the Ministry of Culture and is located in Delhi. It does not receive classified documents. The NAI holds records starting from 1748 in various languages. Efforts have been made to digitize the records through the Abhilekh Patal portal. Ministries and departments transfer records older than 25 years to the NAI, unless they are classified. The NAI also organizes exhibitions on various themes, including declassified files on Subhas Chandra Bose and the history of Jammu & Kashmir.

Statement 1 is correct. The NAI keeps and conserves records of the government and its organizations only, and does not receive classified documents.

Statement 2 is correct. The NAI functions under the Ministry of Culture and is the repository of all non-current government records.

37 / 55

With reference to the shift in Earth's axis of rotation due to excessive groundwater extraction, consider the following statements:

The excessive extraction of groundwater has caused a shift in the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east.
The shift in the Earth's axis due to groundwater extraction has significant real-life consequences.
Human activities, including excessive groundwater extraction, can contribute to the phenomenon of polar motion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Statements 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The study states that the excessive extraction of groundwater between 1993 and 2010 has caused a shift in the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east.
Statement 2 is not correct. Although the shift in the Earth's axis due to groundwater extraction is not significant enough to have real-life consequences, it has contributed to global sea level rise. Therefore, it does not have direct significant real-life consequences.
Statement 3 is correct . Human activities, including excessive groundwater extraction, can contribute to the phenomenon of polar motion. While natural factors like rocks circulating inside Earth's mantle and ocean currents also play a role, human activities impact this phenomenon.
The excessive extraction of groundwater has shifted the Earth's axis of rotation towards the east at a rate of 4.36 cm per year, according to a study. Although the shift is not significant enough to have real-life consequences, it has contributed to global sea level rise. This phenomenon, known as "polar motion," occurs naturally due to changes in mass distribution. Human activities, including groundwater extraction, have impacted the planet's axis.

38 / 55

Consider the following statements.

State legislatures can make law prescribing a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state.
Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence.

Article 16(2) states that “no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State”. The provision is supplemented by the other clauses in the Constitution that guarantee equality.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 16(3) of the Constitution provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.

Statement 3 is correct. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

39 / 55

With reference to World Environment Day and the concept of Net Zero State, consider the following statements:

World Environment Day is celebrated every year on the 5th of June, and the theme for 2023 is "Solution to Plastic Pollution."
A Net Zero State refers to a country's emissions being compensated by the removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. India aims to achieve net zero emissions by 2070.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. World Environment Day is indeed celebrated every year on the 5th of June, and the theme for 2023 is "Solution to Plastic Pollution." The establishment of World Environment Day by the United Nations Assembly in 1972 during the Stockholm Conference is also accurate information.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While a Net Zero State refers to a country's emissions being compensated by the removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere, the specific target of India aiming to achieve net zero emissions by 2070 is not mentioned in the information provided.

40 / 55

With reference to the Kavach system, consider the following statements:

Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System for the Indian Railways.
It is designed to bring a train to a halt automatically when it notices another train on the same line within a prescribed distance.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statement 2 only

(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Both the statements are correct.

KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) System for Indian Railways. Main Function of Kavach: It is designed to bring a train to a halt automatically when it notices another train on the same line within a prescribed distance.

Developed by: Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) of the Ministry of Railways in collaboration with Indian industry.

Statement 2 is correct. Kavach system, consisting of electronic and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices, is designed to automatically halt a train when another train on the same line is detected within a prescribed distance. This is aimed at preventing accidents and collisions on rail tracks.

41 / 55

Q With reference to Greedflation, consider the following statements:

Greedflation refers to price inflation caused by corporate greed for high profits.
Proponents of the Greedflation theory argue that corporate profit margins have risen significantly since the pandemic, contributing to high inflation.
Efforts to rein in market power of large corporations and prevent price hikes have been advocated by proponents of the Greedflation theory.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Greedflation refers to price inflation caused by corporate greed for high profits.
Statement 2 is correct: Proponents of the greedflation theory argue that corporate profit margins have risen significantly since the pandemic, contributing to high inflation.
Statement 3 is correct: Efforts to rein in market power of large corporations and prevent price hikes have been advocated by proponents of the greedflation theory.

42 / 55

QWith reference to the Bonn Climate Change Conference, consider the following statements:

The Global Stocktake under the Paris Agreement assesses collective progress towards long-term global goals, including greenhouse gas reduction and climate finance.
The Bonn Conference emphasized the need for developing countries to be more ambitious in emission reduction and to receive adequate finance from developed countries.
'Just transition pathways' aim to ensure a fair and inclusive transformation towards net zero emissions by 2070.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Global Stocktake under the Paris Agreement assesses collective progress towards long-term global goals, including greenhouse gas reduction and climate finance.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bonn Conference emphasized the need for developing countries to be more ambitious in emission reduction and to receive adequate finance from developed countries.

Statement 3 is correct: 'Just transition pathways' aim to ensure a fair and inclusive transformation towards net zero emissions by 2070.

Bonn Climate Change Conference was the last big milestone in climate negotiations before the first Global Stocktake under the Paris Agreement at COP28 (Conference of the Parties 28) in Dubai in December.

The Global Stocktake is mandated under Article 14 (1) of the Paris Agreement to assess collective progress towards long-term global goals. This includes progress on greenhouse gas reduction, building resilience to climate impacts, and securing finance to address climate crisis.

Parties to the Paris Agreement had introduced ‘just transition pathways’ at COP27.

‘Just Transition’ means that the transformational pathways need to be carried out in a way that is as fair and inclusive as possible to everyone concerned. India is concerned about the difficulties it is going to face in decoupling its economic development from greenhouse gas emissions. India also stated that the route to ‘just transition’ needs to be clubbed with the means of implementation.

India’s climate policy is derived from the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities. In its long-term low emission development strategy at COP27, India underlined the need for “financing” a ‘just transition’ in sectors such as energy and transport in order to reach net zero emissions by 2070.

43 / 55

Q With reference to the provision of piped, potable water in rural India, consider the following statements:

Approximately 64% of rural households in India are currently connected to piped water.
The COVID-19 pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war have significantly impeded the progress of the 'Har Ghar Jal' missions.
Only 35% of villages in India have been certified as 'Har Ghar Jal' with full household connections.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Approximately 64% of rural households in India are currently connected to piped water, as mentioned in the passage.

Statement 2 is correct: The passage states that the COVID-19 pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war have impeded the progress of the 'Har Ghar Jal' missions.

Statement 3 is correct: Only 1,68,157 villages have been reported by States as ‘Har Ghar Jal’ and only 59,000 or about 35% have been ‘certified’ — meaning their gram panchayats have formally acknowledged compliance.

44 / 55

Q With reference to NATO and NATO Plus, consider the following statements:

NATO Plus is an officially recognized concept within NATO, consisting of five treaty allies of the U.S. as members.
The focus of NATO Plus is primarily on containing China.
India is currently a member of the NATO Plus framework.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: NATO Plus is not an officially recognized concept within NATO itself.

Statement 2 is correct: The focus of NATO Plus is primarily on containing China and addressing global defense cooperation.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not currently a member of the NATO Plus framework.

NATO is a transatlantic military alliance of 31 countries, with the majority of members from Europe. After the dissolution of the Soviet Union and the end of the Cold War, many thought that NATO would lose its relevance. On the contrary, NATO has not only survived but also expanded, with Finland joining as its 31st member (April 2023), and Sweden waiting in the wings.

“NATO plus” refers to a security arrangement of NATO and the five treaty allies of the U.S. — Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea as members — to enhance “global defence cooperation” and win the “strategic competition with the Chinese Communist Party”. Interestingly, the term ‘NATO Plus’ is not an officially recognised or established concept within NATO itself, but has been used in discussions and debates regarding the potential expansion of the alliance

The concept of NATO Plus involves enhanced cooperation between NATO and the five treaty allies of the U.S. (Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea) to strengthen global defense cooperation and strategic competition with China. It is important to note that India is not part of the NATO Plus framework at present.

45 / 55

Q Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The number of days with temperatures exceeding 30 degrees Celsius has decreased in recent years.
Marine heatwaves in the Indian Ocean have become more frequent and are now an annual occurrence.
Amplification of climate risks occurs when multiple climate-related factors interact, intensifying the overall risks associated with climate change

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) Statement 1 only

(b) Statements 1 and 2 only

(d) Statements 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The number of days with temperatures exceeding 30 degrees Celsius has increased in recent years.

Statement 2 is correct: Marine heatwaves in the Indian Ocean have become more frequent and are now an annual occurrence.

Statement 3 is correct: Amplification of climate risks occurs when multiple climate-related factors interact, intensifying the overall risks associated with climate change.

46 / 55

Q Consider the following statements regarding monitoring of volcanic activity.

GPS is used to measure centimeter-scale movements on the surface of volcanoes, indicating the presence of underlying pressure.
Tiltmeters detect changes in the slope of a volcano, providing insights into magma movement and volcanic "breathing."
Seismographs are employed to detect tremors caused by magma movement below the surface of volcanoes.
Infrared cameras capture heat emissions from volcanoes, helping identify areas of increased activity.

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

B) Only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

C) Only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

D) All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Explanation:

Volcanic activity is monitored using a combination of instruments.

GPS measures surface movements, indicating underlying pressure.

Tiltmeters detect changes in the slope, providing insights into magma movement.

Seismographs capture tremors caused by magma movement. However, infrared cameras are not typically used for monitoring volcanic activity.

47 / 55

Q Consider the following statements regarding monitoring of International Criminal Court (ICC)

The ICC is located in The Hague and serves as the court of last resort for prosecuting genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
The ICC was established as the first permanent international criminal court through a treaty, the Rome Statute, to combat impunity for serious international crimes.
The ICC's funding primarily comes from voluntary contributions, including those from governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
The ICC has universal territorial jurisdiction, allowing it to investigate and prosecute crimes committed anywhere in the world.

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

B) Only statements 2 and 4 are correct.

C) Only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

D) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is located in The Hague and serves as the court of last resort for prosecuting genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.

It was established as the first permanent international criminal court through the Rome Statute 2002.

The ICC's funding primarily comes from voluntary contributions. However, the ICC does not have universal territorial jurisdiction and can only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states, or crimes referred to the Court by the United Nations Security Council.

The statement about the ICC having universal territorial jurisdiction (statement 4) is incorrect.

48 / 55

Q Consider the following statements:

India joined the Minerals Security Partnership with the US, France, and the UK, which can help establish a trilateral strategic partnership for a reliable lithium supply chain.
India has significant lithium reserves in Jammu & Kashmir (Salal-Haimana area), Rajasthan (Revant Hill), and Karnataka (Mandya district).
The countries with the largest lithium reserves are Chile, Australia, and Bolivia (Lithium Triangle).

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.

C) Only statement 3 is correct.

D) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation: India's membership in the Minerals Security Partnership (statement 1) provides an opportunity to establish a trilateral strategic partnership and secure a reliable lithium supply chain.

India also has substantial lithium reserves in Jammu & Kashmir, Rajasthan, and Karnataka (statement 2), which contribute to its lithium resources.

The countries with the largest lithium reserves are Chile, Australia, and Bolivia (statement 3), collectively known as the Lithium Triangle.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

49 / 55

Q Consider the following statements regarding National and State Indicator Framework:

NIF (National Indicator Framework) is developed at the national level and aligns with the global SDG indicators, while SIF (State Indicator Framework) is developed at the state/union territory level.
NIF focuses on tracking the progress of SDGs at the national level, while SIF focuses on specific indicators relevant to each state/union territory.

Choose the correct options:

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.

C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

D) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct.

Explanation: NIF (National Indicator Framework) and SIF (State Indicator Framework) play crucial roles in monitoring the implementation of SDGs in India.

Statement 1 is correct as NIF is developed at the national level to align with the global SDG indicators, while SIF is developed at the state/union territory level to cater to local priorities and conditions.

Statement 2 is also correct as NIF focuses on tracking the overall progress of SDGs at the national level, while SIF delves into specific indicators that are relevant to each state/union territory.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

50 / 55

Q Consider the following statements regarding Statistics Day.

The objective of Statistics Day is to honor the contributions of Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis and promote awareness about statistics in various fields.
Statistics Day aims to highlight the importance of anthropometry studies conducted by Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in India.

Choose the correct options.

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.

C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

D) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct.

Explanation: Statistics Day, celebrated annually on June 29th in India, serves two important purposes.

Statement 1 is correct as the primary objective of Statistics Day is to honor the contributions of Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis and raise awareness, especially among the younger generation, about the role and significance of statistics in socio-economic planning and policy formulation for the country's development.

It aims to highlight the importance of statistics in various fields such as economics, planning, and policymaking. Statement 2, however, is incorrect.

Although Professor Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis made pioneering studies in anthropometry in India, Statistics Day does not specifically focus on highlighting his work in this area. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

51 / 55

Q What is the role of halogens in the atmosphere?

a) They deplete the ozone layer and increase global warming.

b) They help in cooling the environment and deplete methane.

c) They contribute to the greenhouse effect and decrease water vapor.

d) They have no significant impact on the atmosphere.

Explanation: The correct answer is b) They help in cooling the environment and deplete methane. Halogens, released by the oceans, contribute to cooling the planet by depleting ozone and increasing the lifespan of methane in the atmosphere. This helps in reducing warming and has led to an increase in the global methane burden.

52 / 55

Q Which defense company manufactures the Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS)?

a) Lockheed Martin

b) Raytheon

c) Boeing

d) Northrop Grumman

Explanation: The correct answer is a) Lockheed Martin. The Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS) is manufactured by Lockheed Martin, a US defense company.

53 / 55

What is the conservation status of the Greater Racket-tailed Drongo?

a) Critically Endangered

b) Endangered

c) Vulnerable

d) Least Concern

Explanation: The correct answer is d) Least Concern. The Greater Racket-tailed Drongo has a conservation status of Least Concern according to the IUCN, indicating that its population is relatively stable.

54 / 55

Q What is the conservation status of the Greater Racket-tailed Drongo?

a) Critically Endangered

b) Endangered

c) Vulnerable

d) Least Concern

55 / 55

Q Which state is home to the Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary?

a) Maharashtra

b) Uttar Pradesh

c) Rajasthan

d) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: The correct answer is b) Uttar Pradesh. The Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India.

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June Month, Current Affair Quiz

1 / 79

Q Which term is used to describe startups founded after the year 2000 that have the potential to become unicorns within two years?

a) Gazelles

b) Cheetahs

c) Zebras

d) Rhinos

Explanation: The correct answer is option a) Gazelles. Gazelles are startups founded after the year 2000 that have the potential to become unicorns within two years. Their valuation typically ranges from US$500 million to US$1 billion. Once a gazelle surpasses the $1 billion valuation mark, it becomes a unicorn.

2 / 79

Q What are the main drivers of forest loss in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)?

a) Commercial agriculture and urbanization

b) Mining activities and oil exploration

c) Slash-and-burn agriculture, uncontrolled bushfires, charcoal production, cattle ranching, and illegal logging

d) Industrialization and infrastructure development

Explanation: The correct answer is option c) Slash-and-burn agriculture, uncontrolled bushfires, charcoal production, cattle ranching, and illegal logging. These are the main drivers of forest loss in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC). Economic factors, such as the reliance of the local population on forests for food and energy, contribute to the challenges in reducing primary forest loss in the region.

3 / 79

Q Which of the following countries are part of the Congo rainforest region?

a) Brazil, Bolivia, and Colombia

b) Cameroon, Central African Republic, Republic of Congo, Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon

c) Indonesia, Malaysia, and Papua New Guinea

d) India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar

Explanation: The correct answer is option b) Cameroon, Central African Republic, Republic of Congo, Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. The Congo rainforest spans six African countries, including these mentioned countries. It is the world's second-largest rainforest after the Amazon rainforest.

4 / 79

Q Which of the following functions are performed by the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution?

a) Making laws on land, forest management, and appointment of traditional chiefs and headmen.

b) Regulating social matters and controlling non-tribal activities.

c) Development initiatives and control over revenue sources.

d) All of the above.

Explanation: The correct answer is option d) All of the above. The Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) have various functions and powers granted to them under the Sixth Schedule of the constitution. These include making laws on land, forest management, appointment of traditional chiefs and headmen, regulating social matters, development initiatives, control over non-tribal activities, and more. ADCs have significant responsibilities within their respective districts.

5 / 79

Q Which of the following states in India have Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) established under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution?

a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram

b) Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Mizoram

c) Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, and Nagaland

d) Assam, Manipur, Tripura, and Nagaland

Explanation: The correct answer is option a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) are governing bodies established in certain tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

6 / 79

Q Where is the secretariat of the Global Environment Facility (GEF) located?

a) Geneva, Switzerland

b) New York, USA

c) Washington, D.C.

d) Tokyo, Japan

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Washington, D.C. The secretariat of the GEF is based in Washington, D.C., USA.

7 / 79

Q What is the main cause of toxic algal blooms in aquatic environments?

a) Overfishing and depletion of fish stocks

b) Pollution from industrial waste and chemicals

c) Changes in water temperature and salinity

d) Excessive growth of algae due to nutrient availability

Explanation: The correct answer is d) Excessive growth of algae due to nutrient availability. Algal blooms occur when there is a rapid and excessive growth of algae in aquatic environments, often caused by factors such as nutrient availability, including an excess of nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus.

8 / 79

Q What is the main purpose of the Global Environment Facility (GEF)?

a) Tackling climate change and pollution

b) Addressing urgent environmental issues

c) Providing financial assistance for international conventions

d) Promoting biodiversity conservation

Explanation: The correct answer is b) Addressing urgent environmental issues. The GEF was established to tackle pressing environmental problems, including biodiversity loss, climate change, pollution, and land and ocean health issues.

9 / 79

Q What is the eligibility criteria for skin donation?

A) Only individuals below 18 years of age

B) Only individuals with specific blood groups

C) Anyone regardless of their age and sex

D) Only individuals without a history of trauma or burns

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Anyone regardless of their age and sex. Skin donation is open to anyone, irrespective of their age, sex, or blood group. However, individuals with certain conditions such as AIDS, Hepatitis B & C, sexually transmitted diseases, skin cancer, active skin diseases, and septicemia are not eligible to donate their skin. A history of trauma or burns does not disqualify someone from being a skin donor.

10 / 79

Q Who was the builder of the Great Pyramid of Giza?

A) Khafre

B) Menkaure

C) Khufu (Cheops)

D) Sir William Matthew Flinders Petrie

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Khufu (Cheops). The Great Pyramid of Giza was constructed by Khufu, the second king of Egypt's 4th dynasty, around 2560 BCE.

11 / 79

Q How many pyramids are there at the Giza plateau?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Three. The Giza plateau is home to three pyramids built during Egypt's 4th dynasty. They are the Pyramid of Khufu (Cheops), the Pyramid of Khafre, and the Pyramid of Menkaure. Each pyramid was built for a different pharaoh.

12 / 79

Q Which of the following is NOT a factor considered in the World Competitiveness Index?

a) Economic performance

b) Government efficiency

c) Social development

d) Infrastructure

Explanation: The World Competitiveness Index evaluates and compares countries based on economic performance, government efficiency, business efficiency, and infrastructure. Social development is not included as a separate factor in the index.

13 / 79

Q According to the World Competitiveness Index, which country ranked first in terms of competitiveness?

a) Denmark

b) Ireland

c) Switzerland

d) India

Explanation: The World Competitiveness Index ranked Denmark, Ireland, and Switzerland as the top three most competitive countries among the 64 economies included in the index. India did not rank first.

14 / 79

Q Which of the following statements about whiteflies is correct?

a) Whiteflies are found in Pune city.

b) Whiteflies primarily attack mango trees.

c) Whiteflies secrete honeydew, which promotes the growth of black, sooty mold.

d) Whiteflies are native to India.

Explanation: The correct statement is: c) Whiteflies secrete honeydew, which promotes the growth of black, sooty mold. Whiteflies are mentioned to have been spotted in Pune city, but the statement doesn't specify whether they are found there or not. They primarily infest coconut palms and other broad-leaved hosts, not mango trees. Lastly, whiteflies are native to Belize, Guatemala, and Mexico, not India.

15 / 79

Q Consider the following statements:

1. It is a Jain pilgrimage centre located in Karnataka.

2. It has two hills, Chandragiri and Vindyagiri

3. The statue Gommateshwara, which is located near this place is dedicated to the Jain God Bahubali.

Which of the following places is referred to in the above lines?

(a) Ranakpur

(b) Nareli

(d) Shravanbelagola

Explanation:

— Shravanabelagola, is a Jain pilgrimage centre located near Channarayapatna of Hassan district in Karnataka, about 144 kms from state capital Bengaluru.

— Shravanabelagola has two hills, Chandragiri and Vindyagiri.

— The Gommateshwara Bahubali statue, located on the Vindyagiri Hill is one of the most important pilgrimage destinations for Jains. It is dedicated to the Jain God Bahubal.

— It was built around 983 A.D. and is one of the largest free-standing statues in the world.

— The place is famous for Bahubali Mahamasthakabhisheka Mahotsav. The Mahamastakabhisheka festival is held once in 12 years, when the Gommateshwara statue is anointed with milk, saffron, ghee, etc.

16 / 79

Q He was appointed secretary of the Asiatic Society. Between 1834 and 1837, his most notable feat was the decipherment of the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts. The identification of Piyadasi with Asoka and the contemporary kings described in his Rock Edict XIII allowed for the establishment of a precise chronology for Indian history.

The above-mentioned lines refer to

(a) James Princep

(b) Alexander Cunningham

(d) Hasmukh Dhirajlal Sankhalia

Explanation:

— In 1833 James Prinsep became the secretary of the Asiatic Society.

— The most eventful achievement of James Princep was the decipherment of the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts between 1834 and 1837.

— The identification of Piyadasi with Asoka and the contemporary kings mentioned in his Rock Edict XIII enabled to fix a clear chronological bench mark for Indian history.

— The excavations at Manikyala stupa (now in Bangladesh) in 1830 and in sites in the Indus – Jhelum region in 1833 and 1834 revealed Buddhist relics and through coins a new ruling family, the Kushanas was identified.q

17 / 79

Q Which of the following is an initiative aimed at strengthening critical mineral supply chains and promoting economic development benefits?

a) Mineral Security Partnership (MSP)

b) Critical Minerals Alliance (CMA)

c) Sustainable Resource Initiative (SRI)

d) Global Mineral Development Program (GMDP)

Explanation: The correct answer is a) Mineral Security Partnership (MSP). The Mineral Security Partnership is an initiative announced by the United States and key partner countries to ensure the production, processing, and recycling of critical minerals in a way that supports economic development benefits. It focuses on critical minerals such as cobalt, nickel, lithium, and rare earth minerals. India has recently been included as a member of the Mineral Security Partnership.

18 / 79

Q Sea lions primarily feed on which of the following?

a) Seaweed and kelp

b) Plankton and small organisms

c) Fish like herring, anchovies, and sardines

d) Algae and aquatic plants

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Fish like herring, anchovies, and sardines. Sea lions are carnivorous marine mammals that primarily feed on fish, including species like herring, anchovies, and sardines.

19 / 79

Q Which states in India are the major producers of Jeera (Cumin)?

a) Maharashtra and Karnataka

b) Punjab and Haryana

c) Gujarat and Rajasthan

d) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

20 / 79

Q What is the chiral Bose-liquid state?

A) A new state of matter that exists at extremely low temperatures.

B) A state of matter that behaves differently in the quantum realm.

C) A state of matter that exhibits predictable electron patterns.

D) A state of matter that can be formed in bi-layer semiconducting devices.

Explanation: The correct answer is C) A state of matter that exhibits predictable electron patterns. The chiral Bose-liquid state refers to a state of matter where electrons arrange themselves into predictable patterns, making them resistant to changes in spin and synchronizing their movements

21 / 79

Q What does the term "chiral" mean?

A) A state of matter that cannot be superimposed on its own mirror image.

B) A state of matter that exists at extremely low temperatures.

C) A state of matter that behaves differently in the quantum realm.

D) A state of matter that exhibits predictable electron patterns

Explanation: The correct answer is A) A state of matter that cannot be superimposed on its own mirror image. The term "chiral" comes from the Greek word for "hand" and refers to objects or entities that cannot be superimposed on their own mirror image.

22 / 79

Q What is the current conservation status of the White-Rumped Vulture?

A) Endangered

B) Vulnerable

C) Critically Endangered

D) Near Threatened

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Critically Endangered. The White-Rumped Vulture is classified as Critically Endangered according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). This indicates that the species faces an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.

23 / 79

Q Where can the White-Rumped Vulture be found?

A) India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh

B) India, Nepal, and Bhutan

C) India, Sri Lanka, and Myanmar

D) India, Pakistan, and Thailand

Explanation: The correct answer is A) India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. The White-Rumped Vulture is found in various countries including India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh. It also occurs in Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar (Burma), Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and southern Vietnam. However, the highest concentration of the species is found in India.

24 / 79

Q Which gas is associated with the formation of auroras and emits infrared radiation during the process?

A) Nitrogen

B) Oxygen

C) Carbon Dioxide

D) Hydrogen

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Carbon Dioxide. When charged particles interact with Earth's atmosphere during the formation of auroras, they encounter various atoms and molecules, including carbon dioxide. When carbon dioxide molecules, located around 90 kilometers above the Earth, become excited during an aurora, they emit infrared radiation. This leads to a higher amount of infrared radiation than what is typically observed in the Earth's atmosphere.

25 / 79

Q What is the purpose of a skin bank?

A)To provide cosmetic treatments for skin conditions

B)To facilitate organ transplantation

C) To preserve and provide donated skin for burn victims

D) To conduct research on skin diseases

Explanation: The correct answer is C) To preserve and provide donated skin for burn victims. The purpose of a skin bank is to process and preserve cadaveric skin that can be used for the treatment of burn injuries.

26 / 79

Q Which of the following is true about reef sharks?

a) They are herbivorous species.

b) They have no significant role in marine ecosystems.

c) They serve as indicator species for the health of marine ecosystems.

d) They are found only in polar regions.

Explanation: The correct answer is c) They serve as indicator species for the health of marine ecosystems. Reef sharks play a crucial role in shaping Caribbean reef communities and serve as indicator species for the health of marine ecosystems. Their presence or absence can reflect the overall condition of the reef environment.

27 / 79

Q Which region of the human brain shows a higher susceptibility to Covid infections?

a) Cerebrum

b) Cerebellum

c) Brainstem

d) Hippocampus

Explanation: The correct answer is b) Cerebellum. The passage states that a recently conducted study found that the cerebellum, a region of the human brain, exhibits a higher susceptibility to Covid infections compared to other brain regions.

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Q Where is India's largest natural arch formation located?

a) Tirumala hills, Tirupati

b) Andaman and Nicobar

c) Sundargarh forest division in Odisha

d) Kenduadihi block in Sundargarh district

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Sundargarh forest division in Odisha. According to the context, the Geological Survey of India identified India's largest natural arch formation in the Kanika range of Sundargarh forest division.

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Q What are Geo Heritage Sites (GHSs)?

a) Sites of historical significance

b) Sites with ecological importance

c) Sites with cultural heritage value

d) Sites of geological and paleontological significance

Explanation: The correct answer is d) Sites of geological and paleontological significance. According to the context, Geo Heritage Sites are remarkable locations of geological, geomorphological, mineralogical, petrological, and paleontological significance. They are designated and protected by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) as geo-heritage sites or national geological monuments.

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Q Where is the jellyfish galaxy JO206 located?

a) 700 million kilometers away from Earth

b) 700 million light-years away from Earth

c) In the Aquarius constellation

d) Near the Hubble Space Telescope

Explanation: The correct answer is b) 700 million light-years away from Earth. According to the context, the jellyfish galaxy JO206 is situated approximately 700 million light-years away from Earth.

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Q What have researchers discovered about the Y chromosome?

a) It possesses genes linked to ageing and lifespan regulation.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits.

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It is gradually being replaced by the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

Explanation: The correct answer is a) It possesses genes linked to ageing and lifespan regulation. The key findings state that researchers have discovered that the Y chromosome possesses genes crucial for various biological functions, including those related to ageing and the regulation of lifespan.

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Q What have researchers discovered about the Y chromosome?

a) It possesses genes linked to ageing and lifespan regulation.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits.

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It is gradually being replaced by the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

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Q What is the role of the Y chromosome?

a) It determines the biological male sex.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It gradually replaced the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

Explanation: The correct answer is a) It determines the biological male sex. The information provided states that the Y chromosome, also known as the "master of maleness," determines the biological male sex and carries genes that play a role in sex determination and other male-specific traits.

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Q Which cities are among the top liveable cities according to the Global Liveability Index 2023?

a) Algiers, Tripoli, and Damascus

b) Vienna, Copenhagen, Melbourne, and Sydney

c) Osaka, Japan

d) Western European cities

Explanation: The correct answer is b) Vienna, Copenhagen, Melbourne, and Sydney. According to the Global Liveability Index 2023, these cities are ranked among the top liveable cities.

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Q What was Syama Prasad mukherjee 's objection to the Nehru-Liaquat Pact?

a) He believed it neglected linguistic and ethnic minorities.

b) He felt it failed to address communal tensions and violence.

c) He advocated for a united India instead of a divided Bengal.

d) He criticized its lack of implementation and monitoring mechanisms.

Explanation: The correct answer is c) He advocated for a united India instead of a divided Bengal. Syama Prasad Mookerjee opposed the Nehru-Liaquat Pact as he believed it betrayed the logical outcome of Partition and left Hindus in East Bengal vulnerable. He advocated for population and property exchange, settling Hindu minorities in India and Muslim minorities in East Bengal.

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QWhen was the Nehru-Liaquat Pact signed?

a) April 8, 1947

b) April 8, 1950

c) August 15, 1947

d) August 15, 1950

Explanation: The correct answer is b) April 8, 1950. The Nehru-Liaquat Pact was signed between India and Pakistan on April 8, 1950.

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Q Which country has been recognised as the most gender-equal country for the 14th consecutive year?

A) India

B) Pakistan

C) Bangladesh

D) Iceland

Explanation: The correct answer is D) Iceland. The passage mentions that Iceland was recognized as the most gender-equal country for the 14th consecutive year, having closed over 90% of its gender gap. Therefore, option D is the correct country mentioned in the passage.

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Q According to the World Economic Forum's Gender Gap Report, 2023, what is India's ranking in terms of gender parity?

A) 135

B) 127

C) 142

D) 59

Explanation: The correct answer is B) 127. The passage states that India was ranked at 127 out of 146 countries in terms of gender parity according to the World Economic Forum's Gender Gap Report, 2023. Therefore, option B is the correct ranking mentioned in the passage.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Mesolithic period is true?

A) It was a time when agriculture and settled communities emerged.

B) Stone tools from this period were large and referred to as microliths.

C) People primarily relied on agriculture for their survival.

D) The Mesolithic period existed between the Paleolithic and Neolithic periods.

Explanation: The correct answer is D) The Mesolithic period existed between the Paleolithic and Neolithic periods. The passage states that the Mesolithic period, also known as the Middle Stone Age, existed between the Paleolithic (Old Stone Age) and the Neolithic (New Stone Age). Therefore, option D is the correct statement. The other options are incorrect based on the information provided in the passage.

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Q Which of the following is NOT an application of the Einstein Telescope?

A) Exploring the Universe through gravitational waves.

B) Testing general relativity near black-hole horizons.

C) Detecting intermediate-mass black holes.

D) Studying the cosmic microwave background radiation.

Explanation: The correct answer is D) Studying the cosmic microwave background radiation. The passage mentions several applications of the Einstein Telescope, such as exploring the Universe through gravitational waves, addressing fundamental questions in physics and cosmology, including testing general relativity near black-hole horizons and studying quantum gravity. It also states that the telescope will be capable of detecting intermediate-mass black holes. However, there is no mention of studying the cosmic microwave background radiation as an

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Q Which of the following statements about the Einstein Telescope is true?

A) It is currently operational and detecting gravitational waves.

B) It is expected to be less sensitive than the Advanced Virgo and Advanced LIGO detectors

C) It will have a larger interferometer size and improved sensitivity compared to existing detectors.

D) Its primary purpose is to study the cosmic microwave background radiation.

Explanation: The correct answer is C) It will have a larger interferometer size and improved sensitivity compared to existing detectors. The passage mentions that the Einstein Telescope is a highly advanced observatory for detecting gravitational waves that is currently in the planning stage. It states that the telescope will enhance sensitivity by increasing the interferometer's size from 3km (Virgo) to 10km and implementing new technologies. Therefore, option C is the correct statement.

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Q With reference to the ports in India, consider the following statements:

1. The share of major ports in total transactions was less than the non-major ports in FY23.

2. Andhra Pradesh does not have a major port.

3. Many state governments have given non major ports on lease to private partners.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation: The correct answer is A)

— India’s major ports handled the highest-ever cargo at 795 million tonnes in 2022-23 with transactions worth about Rs 5,000 crore, the shipping ministry has surpassed its FY23 asset monetisation target of about Rs 3,700 crore.

— The major ports have handled the highest-ever cargo in the history of the ports at 795 million metric tonnes. This is 10 per cent higher than the previous year’s cargo handled in 2022. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— India has 12 major ports — Deendayal (Kandla), Mumbai, Mormugao, New Mangalore, Cochin, Chennai, Ennore (Kamarajar), Tuticorin (V O Chidambaranar), Visakhapatnam, Paradip and Kolkata (including Haldia) and Jawaharlal Nehru Port. Hence, statement 2 is not correct

— The major ports have recorded higher annual growth than that of non-major ports. The share of major ports in the total cargo was 54 per cent and non-major ports were 46 per cent in FY22. The share of major ports rose to 55 per cent and that of non-major ports fell to 45 per cent in FY23.

— Non-major ports are administered by state governments. Many state governments have given such ports on lease to private partners. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Q With reference to the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. In this scheme, all resident individuals are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year.

2. Minors are not included in this scheme.

3. Remittance for trading in foreign exchange abroad is prohibited.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation: The correct answer is B)

Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

The resident individuals can avail of foreign exchange facility for the purposes mentioned in Para 1 of Schedule III of FEM (CAT) Amendment Rules 2015, dated May 26, 2015, within the limit of USD 2,50,000 only.

The Scheme was introduced on February 4, 2004, with a limit of USD 25,000. The LRS limit has been revised in stages consistent with prevailing macro and micro economic conditions.

If the remitter is a minor, the LRS declaration form must be countersigned by the minor’s natural guardian.

The Scheme is not available to corporates, partnership firms, HUF, Trusts, etc.

The remittance facility under the Scheme is not available for the following:

(i) Remittance for any purpose specifically prohibited under Schedule-I (like the purchase of lottery tickets/sweep stakes, proscribed magazines, etc.) or any item restricted under Schedule II of Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000.

(ii) Remittance from India for margins or margin calls to overseas exchanges / overseas counterparty.

(iii) Remittances for the purchase of FCCBs issued by Indian companies in the overseas secondary market.

(iv) Remittance for trading in foreign exchange abroad. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

(v) Capital account remittances, directly or indirectly, to countries identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as “non-cooperative countries and territories”, from time to time.

(vi) Remittances directly or indirectly to those individuals and entities identified as posing a significant risk of committing acts of terrorism as advised separately by the Reserve Bank to the banks.

(vii) Gifting by a resident to another resident, in foreign currency, for the credit of the latter’s foreign currency account held abroad under LRS.

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Q What is the main component of the biodegradable supercapacitor developed by scientists at GERMI?

A) Seaweed

B) Cellulose

C) Lipids

D) Bioactive compounds

Explanation: The correct answer is A) Seaweed. The biodegradable supercapacitor developed by scientists at GERMI is made from seaweed, specifically marine macroalgae. Seaweed is rich in valuable components such as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and bioactive compounds. However, in this context, seaweed is the main component used to create the biodegradable supercapacitor.

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Q Which architectural styles are combined in the Kamakhya Temple?

A) Nagara and Dravidian

B) Saracenic and Rajput

C) Nagara and Saracenic

D) Dravidian and Mughal

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Nagara and Saracenic. The Kamakhya Temple combines the traditional Nagara or North Indian architectural style with the Saracenic or Mughal style, resulting in the unique Nilachala Style of Architecture.

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Q Where is the Ambubachi Mela celebrated?

Guwahati, Assam

Kolkata, West Bengal

Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh

Puri, Odisha

Explanation: The correct answer is A) Guwahati, Assam. The Ambubachi Mela is celebrated at the Kamakhya Temple, which is located on Nilachal Hill near the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River in Guwahati, Assam.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Al-Hakim Mosque is true?

a) It is located in Yemen.

b) It was primarily constructed using stone.

c) The mosque's main entrance is situated on the eastern facade.

d) It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Explanation: The correct answer is d) It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. According to the given information, the Al-Hakim Mosque, located in Cairo, Egypt, was recognized and inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1979. Therefore, option d) is the correct statement about the mosque.

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QvWhich of the following statements is true about the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)?

a) It is responsible for the manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs in India.

b) It is a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

c) It evaluates drug safety, efficacy, quality, and regulatory policies

d) It is part of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO).

Explanation: The correct answer is c) It evaluates drug safety, efficacy, quality, and regulatory policies. According to the given information, the DTAB is the highest decision-making body on technical matters related to drugs in the country. It evaluates various aspects of drugs, including safety, efficacy, quality, and regulatory policies.

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Q Which of the following is a recommendation of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)?

a) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of Ketoprofen

b) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of Aceclofenac

c) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of both Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac

d) Recommending the use of Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac in certain medical conditions

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Banning the manufacture, sale, and distribution of both Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac. According to the given information, the DTAB has recommended the ban on both Ketoprofen and Aceclofenac.

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Q What is the role of the Y chromosome?

a) It determines the biological male sex.

b) It carries genes responsible for female-specific traits

c) It has no role in determining biological sex.

d) It gradually replaced the Neanderthal Y chromosome.

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Q Consider the following statements:

Energy flow in an ecosystem is always linear.
Energy flow decreases at the successive trophic levels.
The detritus food chain shows a greater energy flow than the grazing food chain in the terrestrial ecosystem

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Reduction in Repo rates is covered under monetary policy. Through the fiscal policy, the government of a country controls the flow of tax revenues and public expenditure to navigate the economy. The government decides about borrowing domestically or from overseas. Alternatively, the government also chooses to draw upon its foreign exchange reserves or print additional money.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Repo rate is necessarily higher than Reverse repo rate but not necessarily 100 basis points. It can be higher than 100 basis points or lower than 100 basis points.

Statement 3 is correct: The Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Monetary authorities use this to control the money supply in the economy, thereby inflation. An increase in the Repo rates is likely to push up the interest rates offered by the banks as they have to pay the higher interest rates to RBI in the form of Repo rate. Equated Monthly Instalments (EMIS) on home, vehicle and other personal and corporate loans are likely to go up. Deposit rates, mainly fixed term rates, are also set to rise. Consumption and demand can be impacted by the Repo rate

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Q Which of the following statements accurately reflects about the New Development Bank (NDB)?

A) The NDB was established by the United Nations to provide financial support for infrastructure projects in developing nations.

B) The NDB was officially established in 2015 and is led by the BRICS nations, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.

C) The NDB's headquarters is located in Johannesburg, South Africa, and it has regional offices in Shanghai, China, and Moscow, Russia.

D) The NDB's membership is limited to the BRICS countries, and new members cannot join the bank.

Explanation: The correct statement is B. According to the context, the NDB was established in 2015 and is led by the BRICS nations. The headquarters of the NDB is in Shanghai, China. The other statements do not accurately reflect the information provided.

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Q Which of the following statements accurately reflects the governance structure of the New Development Bank (NDB)?

A) The NDB's Board of Governors is composed of the finance ministers from the BRICS countries, and each country has an equal voting power.

B) New members of the NDB have the opportunity to become part of the Board of Directors, which governs the bank's operations.

C) The NDB's presidency rotates among the member countries of the United Nations, and the vice presidents are selected from non-BRICS countries.

D) The five BRICS countries collectively retain a minimum of 55% of the total shares in the NDB, and the bank's management includes a rotating presidency and four vice presidents.

Explanation: The correct statement is D. According to the context, the governance structure of the NDB involves the five BRICS countries collectively retaining a minimum of 55% of the total shares. The bank's management includes a rotating presidency among the BRICS members and four vice presidents selected from the remaining BRICS countries. The other statements do not accurately reflect the information provided.

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Q Which of the following statements accurately reflects the information provided about the National Archives of India?

A) The National Archives of India was initially established in New Delhi in 1926, and its present building was constructed in Kolkata (Calcutta) in 1891.

B) It operates under the Ministry of Education and is responsible for implementing the Public Records Act of 1993 and the Public Record Rules of 1997.

C) The National Archives of India houses a vast collection of records, including files, volumes, maps, and proscribed literature, but it does not have any Oriental records.

D) The institution was established as the Imperial Record Department in Kolkata (Calcutta) in 1891 and later moved to New Delhi in 1911 after the capital was transferred.

Explanation: The correct statement is D. According to the context, the National Archives of India was initially established as the Imperial Record Department in Kolkata (Calcutta) in 1891. Its present building was constructed in 1926 after the capital was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911. It operates under the Ministry of Culture, and its headquarters are located in New Delhi. The institution is responsible for implementing the Public Records Act of 1993 and the Public Record Rules of 1997. It houses a vast collection of records, including Oriental records in languages such as Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, and others. The other statements do not accurately reflect the information provided.

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Q Which of the following statements accurately reflects the information provided about Anak Krakatau volcano?

A) Anak Krakatau is an island located within Ujung Kulon National Park, renowned as the last sanctuary of the Javan rhinoceros.

B) The NDB was officially established in 2015 and is led by the BRICS nations, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.

C) The NDB's headquarters is located in Johannesburg, South Africa, and it has regional offices in Shanghai, China, and Moscow, Russia

D) Anak Krakatau is the original Krakatau island that was obliterated during a destructive volcanic eruption in 1927.

Explanation: The correct statement is B. According to the context, Anak Krakatau is an island located within a caldera in the Sunda Strait, which lies between the islands of Java and Sumatra in Indonesia. It emerged from the caldera formed during the destructive volcanic eruption that obliterated the original Krakatau island in 1927. The eruption of Krakatau in 1883 led to global cooling. Ujung Kulon National Park is a separate location and does not encompass Anak Krakatau. The island is not situated on Sumatra but rather in the Sunda Strait. The other statements do not accurately reflect the information provided.

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Q What is the impact of the Reserve Bank of India's decision to allow compromise settlements for wilful defaulters and fraud cases?

a) It protects the interests of depositors and stakeholders.

b) It undermines the integrity of the banking system.

c) It encourages honest borrowers to settle their loans.

d) It reduces non-performing assets (NPAs) in the banking sector.

Explanation: The correct answer is b) It undermines the integrity of the banking system.

The passage mentions that the RBI's decision to allow compromise settlements for wilful defaulters and fraud cases is seen as compromising the banking system's integrity. This decision has drawn criticism from bankers who believe it burdens ordinary citizens and undermines the banking system. The passage further explains that the sudden policy reversal erodes public trust and undermines depositor confidence. Therefore, the decision has a negative impact on the integrity of the banking system.

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Q What is the purpose of general consent given by state governments to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in India?

It allows the CBI to investigate cases without seeking fresh permission for each case.

It restricts the jurisdiction of the CBI to specific states.

It grants the CBI the power to act as police personnel within a state.

d) It ensures the CBI's investigation is limited to corruption-related offenses.

he correct answer is a) It allows the CBI to investigate cases without seeking fresh permission for each case.

The passage explains that general consent is a type of permission given by a state government to the CBI, allowing it to operate smoothly within a state without seeking fresh permission for each case. It enables the CBI to investigate cases and enter the state without prior permission. Therefore, the purpose of general consent is to allow the CBI to conduct investigations without the need for case-by-case permission.

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Q What is the impact of the Reserve Bank of India's decision to allow compromise settlements for wilful defaulters and fraud cases?

a) It protects the interests of depositors and stakeholders.

b) It undermines the integrity of the banking system.

c) It encourages honest borrowers to settle their loans.

d) It reduces non-performing assets (NPAs) in the banking sector.

Explanation: The correct answer is b) It undermines the integrity of the banking system.

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Q According to the Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI) 2023, what is one of the key findings regarding attitudes towards violence?

a) Nearly 9 out of 10 men and women hold biases against women.

b) 25% of people believe it is justified for a man to beat his wife.

c) Countries with greater bias in gender social norms have lower representation of women in parliament

d) Despite educational achievements, women face limited opportunities for economic empowerment.

Explanation: The correct answer is b) 25% of people believe it is justified for a man to beat his wife.

The passage states that one of the key findings of the GSNI 2023 is that 25% of people believe it is justified for a man to beat his wife. This finding highlights persistent harmful attitudes towards violence against women. The GSNI quantifies biases against women and reflects people's attitudes towards women's roles. While option a) is mentioned as a key finding, it does not specifically relate to attitudes towards violence. Options c) and d) are not directly related to attitudes towards violence but discuss political representation and economic outcomes, respectively.

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Q What are the reasons for the projected slowdown in remittance inflows to India?

a) Slower economic growth in OECD and GCC countries.

b) Declining oil prices in Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries.

c) Limited demand for migrants in GCC countries.

d) All of the above.

Explanation: The correct answer is d) All of the above.

The passage states that the projected slowdown in remittance inflows to India is expected due to slower economic growth in OECD and GCC countries, declining oil prices in GCC countries, and limited demand for migrants in GCC countries. These factors collectively contribute to the anticipated slowdown in remittance growth. Therefore, option d) correctly captures all the reasons mentioned in the context.

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Q Which region is projected to have the lowest remittance growth in 2023?

a) South Asia

b) Latin America and the Caribbean

c) Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries

d) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) countries

Explanation: The correct answer is a) South Asia.

The passage mentions that remittance growth is projected to be the lowest in South Asia (0.3%) compared to other regions. The projected growth rates are specifically highlighted, indicating that South Asia is expected to have the lowest remittance growth in 2023. Therefore, option a) accurately reflects the information provided in the context.

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Q Which river is the Kakhovka Dam located on?

a) Danube River

b) Volga River

c) Dnieper River

d) Rhine River

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Q Which award was instituted by the Government of India as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi's ideals?

a) Bharat Ratna

b) Padma Shri

c) Gandhi Peace Prize

d) Nobel Peace Prize

Explanation: The correct answer is c) Gandhi Peace Prize. The Gandhi Peace Prize was instituted by the Government of India in 1995 on the occasion of the 125th Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi as a tribute to his ideals. It is an annual award that recognizes individuals and organizations for their contributions to peace and social transformation.

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Q What is the primary factor contributing to low milk productivity in India's dairy sector?

a) Inefficient breeding practices

b) Fodder inflation

c) Demand destruction during the Covid-19 pandemic

d) Lumpy skin disease outbreak

Explanation: The correct answer is a) Inefficient breeding practices. Inefficient breeding practices lead to low productivity and genetic variability, ultimately resulting in reduced milk production. Many farmers still rely on traditional breeding methods and lack access to modern technologies for genetic improvement.

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Q Which program contributed to the transformation of India from a milk importer to the world's largest producer?

a) Operation Flood

b) Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS)

c) Rashtriya Gokul Mission

d) National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD)

Explanation: The correct answer is a) Operation Flood. Operation Flood facilitated the distribution of quality milk across 700 towns and cities through a National Milk Grid. It played a significant role in reducing the need for milk imports and transforming India into the world's largest milk producer.

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Q What is the main objective of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

A) Facilitate international trade and promote exchange rate stability

B) To highlight the challenges faced by global conflicts

C) To emphasize the importance of equal opportunities for refugees

D) To raise awareness about the rising number of forcibly displaced individuals

Explanation: The correct answer is B) Ensure financial stability and reduce global poverty. The IMF's objectives include fostering global monetary cooperation, ensuring financial stability, promoting high employment and sustainable economic growth, reducing global poverty, and supporting macroeconomic growth. While facilitating international trade and providing policy advice and financing for developing countries are also functions of the IMF, the primary objective is to ensure financial stability and reduce poverty on a global scale.

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Q Which country is a founding member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

A) United States of America

B) United Kingdom

C) India

D) China

Explanation: The correct answer is C) India. India is one of the founding members of the IMF, which was established in 1944. As a founding member, India has played an active role in the organization and has received loans from the IMF in the past to address balance of payments deficits. The Finance Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Governor on the IMF's Board of Governors, and the RBI Governor serves as the Alternate Governor at the IMF

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Q Where is the Nova Kakhovka dam located?

A) Russia

B) Belarus

C) Ukraine

D) Turkey

Explanation: The correct answer is C) Ukraine. The Nova Kakhovka dam is located in Ukraine. It is part of the Kakhovka hydroelectric power plant, which was built on the Dnipro River during the Soviet era. The dam creates a large reservoir known as the Kakhovka Sea. It is situated in the Kherson region, with the left (southern) bank controlled by Russia and the right (northern) bank controlled by Ukraine. The dam plays a significant role in hydroelectric power generation, water management, navigation and transport, and recreational activities.

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Q What is the Global Compact on Refugees?

A) A document outlining the challenges faced by refugees globally

B) To highlight the challenges faced by global conflicts

C) To emphasize the importance of equal opportunities for refugees

D) To raise awareness about the rising number of forcibly displaced individuals

Explanation: The correct answer is C) A call for solidarity and a whole-of-society approach towards refugees. The Global Compact on Refugees acknowledges the displacement crisis and emphasises the need for collective action. It recognises the responsibility of governments, individuals, private sector, NGOs, and community-based organisation's in supporting host countries, promoting self-reliance, and exploring long-term solutions.

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Q What is the purpose of World Refugee Day?

To commemorate the courage and resilience of refugees worldwide

To highlight the challenges faced by global conflicts

To emphasize the importance of equal opportunities for refugees

To raise awareness about the rising number of forcibly displaced individuals

Explanation: The correct answer is A) To commemorate the courage and resilience of refugees worldwide. World Refugee Day is a time to honor the bravery and resilience of individuals facing forced displacement. It serves as a reminder of our collective responsibility and the importance of welcoming refugees into our communities.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is correct?

A) The PMKSY aims to reduce farm productivity and maximize resource utilization in India.

B) The PMKSY does not include any component related to irrigation infrastructure investment.

C) The Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) scheme under the PMKSY focuses on improving water-use efficiency and promoting precision irrigation techniques.

D) The Watershed Development (WDC) component of the PMKSY is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Explanation: The correct statement is option c. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) includes the Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) scheme, which aims to improve water-use efficiency and encourage precision irrigation techniques. The PDMC scheme is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare as one of the additional components of the PMKSY. This scheme focuses on enhancing agricultural productivity by optimizing the utilization of water resources.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Electricity Act 2003 and its impact on India's power sector is incorrect?

A) Private investment in power generation increased significantly after the implementation of the act.

B) Long-term power purchase agreements (PPAs) through competitive procurement became prevalent.

C) The Electricity Act 2003 aimed to ensure electricity supply to selected consumers only.

D) The act led to the restructuring of State Electricity Boards and the separation of power generation, transmission, and distribution into distinct entities.

Explanation: The correct statement is option C. The Electricity Act 2003 aimed to ensure electricity supply to all consumers, not just selected consumers. The act introduced significant changes in India's power sector, including the restructuring of State Electricity Boards and the separation of power generation, transmission, and distribution into distinct entities. This restructuring aimed to enhance competition, protect consumer interests, and ensure electricity supply to all. Private investment in power generation increased rapidly, and long-term power purchase agreements (PPAs) through competitive procurement became prevalent, leading to market-driven prices that were lower than anticipated, benefiting consumers. Therefore, option C, which suggests that the act aimed to ensure electricity supply to selected consumers only, is incorrect.

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Q Which of the following statements about the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) is correct?

A) The GMRT is a visual telescope used to observe celestial objects in visible light.

B) The GMRT is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and is operated by the National Centre of Radio Astrophysics (NCRA).

C) The GMRT consists of 30 dish-type antennas, each with a diameter of 25 meters.

D) The GMRT recently underwent an upgrade and is now referred to as the upgraded Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (uGMRT).

Explanation: The correct statement is option D. The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) recently underwent an upgrade and is now referred to as the upgraded Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (uGMRT). The GMRT is not a visual telescope but a radio telescope used to observe radio astrophysical phenomena. It is located in Khodad, 80 km north of Pune, Maharashtra, and is managed by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and operated under the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR). The National Centre of Radio Astrophysics (NCRA), which is part of TIFR in Pune, oversees the telescope's operations. The GMRT consists of 30 dish-type antennas, each with a diameter of 45 meters, and it holds the title of the world's largest radio telescope operating at meter wavelength.

74 / 79

Q What is the primary purpose of the Kakhovka Dam's reservoir?

a) Generation of hydroelectric power

b) Supplying water to the Crimean Peninsula

c) Providing cooling water for the Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant

d) Controlling flooding in the war zone

75 / 79

Q Which of the following statements accurately reflects the information provided about the Gilgit Manuscripts?

A) The Gilgit Manuscripts were discovered by Sir Aurel Stein in the 19th century in Naupur village, located in the Gilgit region of Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

B) These manuscripts were written on birch bark folios and contain only Jain religious texts.

C) The Gilgit Manuscripts are considered the oldest surviving manuscript collection in the Indian Subcontinent and provide insights into the evolution of religious and philosophical literature.

D) The Gilgit Manuscripts were discovered in the National Archives of India and were recently exhibited in an exhibition organized by the National Archives.

Explanation: The correct statement is C. According to the context, the Gilgit Manuscripts are considered the oldest surviving manuscript collection in the Indian Subcontinent, written between the 5th and 6th centuries CE. They were discovered in the Naupur village, located in the Gilgit region of Pakistan Occupied Kashmir, by Sir Aurel Stein. They were written on birch bark folios and contain a mixture of Jain and Buddhist works. The other statements do not accurately reflect the information provided.

76 / 79

Q Consider the following statements:

Energy flow in an ecosystem is always linear.
Energy flow decreases at the successive trophic levels.
The detritus food chain shows a greater energy flow than the grazing food chain in the terrestrial ecosystem

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect: Repo rate is necessarily higher than Reverse repo rate but not necessarily 100 basis points. It can be higher than 100 basis points or lower than 100 basis points.

77 / 79

Q With reference to Islands of India, consider the following statements:

Minicoy Island is separated from Lakshadweep by the 8-degree channel.

Equatorial type of vegetation is found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Lakshadweep and Minicoy Islands are located in the Arabian Sea (adjacent to the Kerala coast). The Lakshadweep group of Islands have been built up by corals and have fringing coral reefs very close to their shores. Minicoy Island is separated from Lakshadweep by the 9-degree channel. Minicoy Island is separated from the Maldives by the 8-degree channel.

Statement 2 is correct: The coastal line has some coral deposits, and beautiful beaches. These islands receive convectional rainfall and have an equatorial type of vegetation.

78 / 79

Q In the context of National Income, which of the following will contribute to the Gross National Product (GNP) of India?

1. An Indian student working as a part-time in an Australia's McDonald.

2. A European doctor working in Indian hospital and earning a good fortune.

3. A Non-Resident Indian earning revenue from India and spending outside the country

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct:Gross National Product (GNP) is the total value of all finished goods and services produced by a country's citizens in a given financial year, irrespective of their location.GNP does not include foreign residents' income earned within the country. So, in first and third case Indian is producing and their income would be included in GNP. Same is not true for second case.

79 / 79

Q Consider the Following statements regarding Repo rate:

The reduction of repo rate is not categorized under the fiscal policy of the government.
Repo rate is always maintained at a level that is 100 basis points higher than the reverse repo rate.
If the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases the repo rate, it may lead to an escalation in the interest rates of loans provided by commercial banks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect: Repo rate is necessarily higher than Reverse repo rate but not necessarily 100 basis points. It can be higher than 100 basis points or lower than 100 basis points.

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May Month, Current Affair Quiz

1 / 30

Q Consider the following statements:

According to Balban the Sultan was God’s shadow on earth and the
recipient of divine grace.

Balban introduced the Persian festival of Nauroz.

Sher Shah Suri established a separate military department – diwan-iarz.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Balban’s experience as the regent
made him to understand the problems of Delhi Sultanate. He knew that
the real threat to the monarchy was from the nobles called the Forty. He
was convinced that only by enhancing the power and authority of the
monarchy he could face the problems. According to Balban the Sultan
was God’s shadow on earth and the recipient of divine grace.
Balban introduced rigorous court discipline and new customs such as
prostration and kissing the Sultan’s feet to prove his superiority over the
nobles. He also introduced the Persian festival of Nauroz to impress
the nobles and people with his wealth and power. He stood forth as
the champion of Turkish nobility. At the same time he did not share
power with other nobles. Indian Muslims were not given important post
in the government. He appointed spies to monitor the activities of the
nobles.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Balban paid more attention to the restoration
of law and order. He established a separate military department –
diwan-i-arz – and reorganized the army. The outskirts of Delhi were
often plundered by the Mewatis. Balban took severe action against them
and prevented such robberies. Robbers were mercilessly pursued and
put to death. As a result, the roads became safe for travel.

2 / 30

Q The Indian nationalists raised the slogan 'no taxation without
representation' against which of the following acts?

Government of India Act, 1919

Government of India Act, 1935

Indian Councils Act of 1892

Indian Councils Act of 1861

Government of India Act, 1919

Government of India Act, 1935

Indian Councils Act of 1892

Indian Councils Act of 1861

Explanation
The nationalist agitation forced the Government to make some changes
in legislative functioning by the Indian Councils Act of 1892.
The number of additional members of the Imperial and Provincial
Legislative Councils was increased from the previous six to ten to ten to
sixteen.
A few of these members could be elected indirectly through municipal
committees, district boards, etc., but the official majority remained.
The members were given the right to discuss the annual budget but they
could neither vote on it nor move a motion to amend it.
They could also ask questions but were not allowed to put
supplementary questions or to discuss the answers.
The 'reformed' Imperial Legislative Council met, during its tenure till
1909, on an average for only thirteen days in a year, and the number of
unofficial Indian members present was only five out of twenty- four.
The nationalists were totally dissatisfied with the Act of 1892. They saw
in it a mockery of their demands. The Councils were still impotent;
despotism still ruled. They now demanded a majority for non-official
elected members with the right to vote on the budget and, thus, on the
public purse.
They raised the slogan 'no taxation without representation.'
Gradually, they raised their demands.

3 / 30

Q Consider the following pairs:

Primary sector - Animal husbandry
Secondary sector - Quarrying
Tertiary sector - Transport

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

None of the pairs

Only one pair

Only two pairs

All three pairs

Explanation:
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The various activities have been classified
into three main sectors i.e., primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary
sector includes agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry
farming, mining and quarrying.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Manufacturing is included in the
secondary sector.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Trade, transport, communication, banking,
education, health, tourism, services, insurance, etc. are included in the
tertiary sector. The activities in this sector result in the production of
goods and services.

4 / 30

Q Consider the following statements:

Under the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad, the name of Hindustan
Republic Association was changed to Hindustan Socialist Republican
Association (HSRA).
Surya Sen used to say ”Humanism is a special virtue of a revolutionary.”
Roshan Singh was hanged in chittagong Armoury Raid.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The younger revolutionaries, inspired by socialist
ideas, set out to reorganise Hindustan Republic Association at a historic
meeting in the ruins of Ferozshah Kotla in Delhi (September 1928). Under
the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad, the name of HRA was
changed to Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). The
participants included Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, Bhagwaticharan Vohra from
Punjab and Bejoy Kumar Sinha, Shiv Verma and Jaidev Kapur from the
United Provinces. The HSRA decided to work under a collective leadership
and adopted socialism as its official goal.
Statement 2 is correct: Surya Sen had participated in the NonCooperation Movement and had become a teacher in the national school in
Chittagong.He was imprisoned from 1926 to 1928 for revolutionary activity
and afterwards continued working in the Congress.He was the secretary of
the Chittagong District Congress Committee. He used to say ”Humanism
is a special virtue of a revolutionary.” He was a lover of poetry and an
admirer of Tagore and Qazi Nazrul Islam.
Statement 3 is incorrect : The most important action of the HRA was the
Kakori robbery. The men held up the 8-Down train at Kakori, an obscure
village near Lucknow, and looted its official railway cash. Government
crackdown after the Kakori robbery led to arrests of many, of whom
17 were jailed, four transported for life and four—Bismil, Ashfaqullah,
Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri—were hanged. Kakori proved to be
a setback.

5 / 30

Q . Which of the following methods can be used toreduce the 'Current
Account Deficit (CAD)' inBalance of Payments (BOP)?

Reduction of import duties in the dairy sector
Wheat Export Ban
Increased remittances to India from the Arab countries

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1 and 2 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: Reducing import duty would lead to
increase in imports, therefore higher outflow and hence lead to higher
current account deficit.
Statement 2 is not correct: Recent wheat exports ban will curb the
exports from India and therefore can lead to higher CAD.
Statement 3 is correct: Increased remittances will lead to higher
inflows and therefore can reduce the CAD of the country.

6 / 30

Q With reference to Lord Dalhousie, Consider the following statements:

1. Opening of Anglo-vernacular schools and government colleges.
2. Establishment of separate public works department in every province.
3. Laying down of first railway line connecting Bombay and Thane.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All statements are correct
Lord Dalhousie 1848-1856
 Second Anglo-Sikh War (1848-49) and annexation of Punjab (1849).
 Annexation of Lower Burma or Pegu (1852).
 Introduction of the Doctrine of Lapse and annexation of Satara
(1848), Jaitpur and Sambhalpur (1849), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi
(1853), Nagpur (1854) and Awadh (1856).
 “Wood’s (Charles Wood, President of the Board of Control)
Educational Despatch” of 1854 and opening of Anglo-vernacular
schools and government colleges.
 Railway Minute of 1853; and laying down of first railway line
connecting Bombay and Thane in 1853.
 Telegraph (4000 miles of telegraph lines to connect Calcutta with
Bombay, Madras and Peshawar) and postal (Post Office Act, 1854)
reforms.
 Ganges Canal declared open (1854); establishment of separate
public works department in every province.
 Widow Remarriage Act (1856).

7 / 30

Q Consider the following statements:

Ahmadiyya community believed in separating the mosque from the State
as well as in human rights and tolerance.
2. Syed Ahmed Khan, opposed purdah and polygamy.
3. Deoband movement organised only on the one objective of propagating
pure teaching of the Quran among Muslims.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

1 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Ahmadiyya forms a sect of Islam which
originated from India. It was founded by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889. It
was based on liberal principles. It described itself as the standard-bearer of
Mohammedan Renaissance, and based itself, like the Brahmo Samaj, on
the principles of universal religion of all humanity, opposing jihad (sacred
war against non-Muslims). The movement spread Western liberal
education among the Indian Muslims. The Ahmadiyya community is the
only Islamic sect to believe that the Messiah had come in the person
of Mirza Ghulam Ahmad to end religious wars and bloodshed and to
reinstate morality, peace and justice.They believed in separating the
mosque from the State as well as in human rights and tolerance.
However, the Ahmadiyya Movement, like Baha’ism which flourished in the
West Asian countries, suffered from mysticism.
Statement 2 is correct: Syed Ahmed Khan, born in a respectable Muslim
family, was a loyalist member of the judicial service of the British
government. After retirement in 1876, he became a member of the Imperial
Legislative Council in 1878. His loyalty earned him a knighthood in 1888.
He wanted to reconcile Western scientific education with the teachings of
the Quran which were to be interpreted in the light of contemporary
rationalism and science even though he also held the Quran to be the
ultimate authority. He said that religion should be adaptable with time or
else it would become fossilised, and that religious tenets were not
immutable. He advocated a critical approach and freedom of thought and
not complete dependence on tradition or custom.He was also a zealous
educationist—as an official, he opened schools in towns, got books
translated into Urdu and started the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College
(later, the Aligarh Muslim University) at Aligarh in 1875. He also struggled
to bring about an improvement in the position of women through
better education and by opposing purdah and polygamy, advocating
easy divorce, and condemning the system of piri and muridi. He
believed in the fundamental underlying unity of religions or ‘practical
morality’. He also preached the basic commonality of Hindu and Muslim
interests.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The Deoband Movement was organised by
the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema as a revivalist
movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of
the Quran and Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad
against the foreign rulers.

8 / 30

Q With reference to Saddler University Commission, Consider the following
statements:

School course should cover 12 years.
Prepare students for university stage.
Female education, applied scientific and technological education,should
be extended.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All statements are correct
The commission was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta
University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other
universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to
university education.
It held the view that, for the improvement of university education,
improvement of secondary education was a necessary pre-condition. Its
observations were as follows:
1. School course should cover 12 years. Students should enter
university after an intermediate stage (rather than matric) for a three-year
degree course in university. This was done to (a) prepare students for
university stage;
(b) relieve universities of a large number of below university standard
students; and (c) provide collegiate education to those not planning to go
through university stage.
A separate board of secondary and intermediate education should be set
up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education.
2. There should be less rigidity in framing university regulations.
3. A university should function as centralised, unitary residential-teaching
autonomous body, rather than as scattered, affiliated colleges.
4. Female education, applied scientific and technological education,
teachers’ training including those for professional and vocational
colleges should be extended.In the period from 1916 to 1921 seven new
universities came up at Mysore, Patna, Benaras, Aligarh, Dacca, Lucknow
and Osmania.In 1920, the Government recommended Saddler report to the
provincial governments.

9 / 30

Q Consider the following statements:

Balshastri Jambhekar attacked brahminical orthodoxy
Gopalhari Deshmukh against the evils of the caste system
The headquarters of the Ramakrishna Math and Mission are at Belur
near Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a
pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay; he attacked
brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism. He
started the newspaper Darpan in 1832. Known as the father of Marathi
journalism, Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the people to
awareness of social reforms, such as widow remarriage, and to instil in the
masses a scientific approach to life. In 1840, he started Digdarshan which
published articles on scientific subjects as well as history.
Statement 2 is correct: Gopalhari Deshmukh (1823-1892) was a social
reformer and rationalist from Maharashtra. He held the post of a judge
under British raj, but wrote for a weekly Prabhakar under the pen name of
Lokahitawadi on social reform issues.He advocated a reorganisation of
Indian society on rational principles and modern, humanistic, secular
values. He attacked Hindu orthodoxy and supported social and religious
equality.He wrote against the evils of the caste system. He said, “If
religion does not sanction social reform, then change religion.”He started a
weekly, Hitechhu, and also played a leading role in founding the
periodicals, Gyan Prakash, Indu Prakash and Lokahitawadi.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The didactic nationalism of the Brahmo Samaj
appealed more to the intellectual elite in Bengal, while the average Bengali
found more emotional satisfaction in the cult of bhakti and yoga. The
teachings of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa (1836-1886), a poor priest at the
Kali temple in Dakshineshwar, on the outskirts of Calcutta (who was known
in childhood as Gadadhar Chattopadhyay) found many
followers.Ramakrishna experienced spiritual trances (ecstasy) from a very
early age. He is considered to have attained the highest spiritual
experience available to Hindus. He did not write books, but his
conversations with people formed the basis of what were considered his
teachings. He spoke simply, in the form of parables and metaphors, drawn
from the observation of ordinary life and nature. But what he said was of
universal relevance.The headquarters of the Ramakrishna Math and
Mission are at Belur near Calcutta.The two are twin organisations,
though legally and financially separate

10 / 30

Q Consider the following statements:

1. The decline of the Hoysala kingdom enabled Harihara and Bukka to
expand their newly founded kingdom.
2. King Albuquerque sent his ambassadors to the court of Achyuta
Deva Raya.
3. The Vijayanagar rulers always attempted to control the port of
Malabar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Harihara and Bukka (c.1336–1377 CE)
Founders of the Sangama dynasty of Vijayanagar kingdom.According to
legends, they belonged to a family of five brothers and were originally
feudatories of the Kakatiyas of warangal and after their fall, they served
as ministers in the Kampili state (modern Karnataka). When Kampala
was overrun by Muhammad bin Tughlaq for giving refuge to a Muslim
rebel, the two brothers were imprisoned and converted to Islam. Later,
they returned to the Hindu fold at the initiative of the saint Vidyaranya.
They also proclaimed their independence and to commemorate the
memory of their guru, the brothers founded a new city of Vidyanagar or
Vijayanagara (meaning city of victory) on the south bank of river
Tungabhadra.The decline of the Hoysala kingdom enabled Harihara
and Bukka to expand their newly founded kingdom. By c. 1346 CE,
they brought the whole of the Hoysala kingdom under their control. It is
pertinent to note that in this struggle they were aided by their brothers
who with their relations took up the administration of the areas
conquered, and thus the Vijayanagara kingdom was a kind of
cooperative commonwealth at first.
Statement 2 is correct: Krishna Deva Raya maintained friendly
relations with the Portuguese. King Albuquerque sent his
ambassadors to the court of Krishna Deva Raya. The Portuguese
travellers Domingo Paes and Barbosa came to India during his reign.
Statement 3 is correct: The conflict between Vijayanagar Empire and
the Bahmani kingdom lasted for many years. The dispute over Raichur
Doab, i.e., the region between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra and
also over the fertile areas of Krishna–Godavari delta led to this longdrawn conflict. In order to wage continuous wars, there was a need to
keep a large army.The Vijayanagar army was very well-organised and
efficient. It consisted of the cavalry, infantry, artillery, and elephants.
High-breed Horses were procured from foreign traders. The Vijayanagar
rulers Imported high quality horses from across the Arabian Sea from
Arabia and other Gulf countries. The port of Malabar was the centre of
this trade and trade in other luxury commodities. The Vijayanagar
rulers always attempted to control the port of Malabar.

11 / 30

Q Consider the following statements regarding Sultanate Period: Consider the following statements regarding Sultanate Period:

1. The Naib practically enjoyed all the powers of the Sultan.
2. The military department was first set up by Balban.
3. The provinces under the Delhi Sultanate were called muqtis

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Sultan was assisted by a number of
ministers who headed different departments and aided in administration.
These ministers were chosen by Sultan and they remained in office at
his pleasure. The post of Naib was the most powerful one. The Naib
practically enjoyed all the powers of the Sultan and exercised general
control over all the departments.Next to him, was the Wazir, who headed
the finance department called Diwan-i-Wizarat.
Statement 2 is correct: The military department was called Diwan-iArz. It was headed by the Ariz-i-mumalik who was responsible for
recruiting the soldiers and Administering the military department. It
should be noted that the Ariz was not the commander-in-chief of the
army, since the Sultan himself was the commander-in-chief of the armed
forces. The military Department was first set up by Balban and was
further improved by Alauddin Khalji, who insisted on a regular muster of
the armed forces.
Statement 3 is incorrect : The provinces under the Delhi Sultanate
were called iqtas. They were initially under the control of the nobles.
But the governors of the provinces were called the muqtis or walis. They
were to maintain law and order and collect the land revenue. The
provinces were further divided into shiqs, which was under the control of
the shiqdar, and the next division was pargana, comprising a number of
villages and was headed by the amil. The villages were grouped into
units of 100 or 84 (traditionally called chaurasi). The village remained the
basic unit of the administration. The village headman was known as
muqaddam or Chaudhri. The village accountant was called patwari.

12 / 30

Q Consider the following statements:

1. The capital of the Eastern Chalukyas was Vengi
2. Bhima I was captured by the Rashtrakuta king.
3. Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi were conquered by the Chola king
Rajaraja

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In the second half of the 8th century, the
Eastern Chalukyas established themselves in Vengi in Andhra Pradesh.
As we have discussed earlier,Pulakesin II (c. 610–642 CE) conquered
the Vengi region in eastern Deccan and in 624 CE appointed his brother
Vishnuvardhana as the governor of this newly acquired territory.
Probably after the death of Pulkeshin II, Vishnuvardhana declared
independence and thus the Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi came into
prominence. Initially, the capital of the Eastern Chalukyas was Vengi
(near modern Eluru) but later it was moved to Rajamahendravaram
(modern Rajamundry)
Statement 2 is correct: Vishnuvardhana (around c. 624 CE)
Vijayaditya II (c. 808–847 CE) One of the most important ruler of this
dynasty, who led successful military expeditions against the
Rashtrakutas,the Gangas, and also led campaigns into Gujarat. Even
the Rashtrakuta inscriptions acknowledge their defeat at the hands of
Vijayaditya and they admit that the glory of their kingdom was ‘drowned
in the ocean of the Chalukyas’. Vijayaditya III (c. 848–892 CE) Another
important ruler of this dynasty, who claimed to have won over not only
the Pallavas, the Pandyas, the Gangas, the Rashtrakutas, the
Kalachuris, and South Kosala, but also gave shelter to a Chola
king.Bhima I (c. 892−922 CE) He was captured by the Rashtrakuta
king but was later released.
Statement 3 is correct: Vijayaditya IV (around c.922 CE, for a period of
six months) From his reign, many succession disputes erupted in which
the Rashtrakutas openly interfered and backed one or the other
contenders. The later rulers thus had very short reigns, from six months
to a mere fortnight too. Some political stability was restored during the
reigns of Bhima II and Amma II, but it did not last for a long time and
subsequently in 999 CE, the Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi were
conquered by the Chola king Rajaraja.

13 / 30

Q With reference to ancient India, which of the following is the correct
sequence in ascending order ?

1. Mahanadanyaka
2. Uparikas
3. Vishyapatis

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3-2-1

1-2-3

3-2-1

1-3-2

Explanation:
Vishyapatis-Uparikas-Mahanadanyaka

14 / 30

Q He came to India in 1800 as a watchmaker but spent his entire life in
the promotion of modern education in the country, founded the famous
Hindu College. Rammohun Roy gave the most enthusiastic assistance
to his educational projects. He was:

Vivian Derozio

William Jones

David Hare

William Carey

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct
David Hare (1775–1842) was a Scottish watchmaker and philanthropist
in Bengal, India (see East India Company and their rule in India). He
founded many educational institutions in Calcutta (now Kolkata), such as
the Hindu School, and Hare School and helped in founding Presidency
College.Hare felt that the need of the country was English education. He
used to discuss the topic with many of his customers, who came to buy
watches in his shop. Raja Ram Mohan Roy went to Kolkata in 1814 and
within a short time, they became friends. In 1816, he went on his own
and attended a session of the Raja’s Atmiya Sabha. Both of them
discussed at length the proposal to establish an English school at
Kolkata. Babu Buddi Nath Mukherjee – another member of Atmiya
Sabha – later discussed the matter with Sir Hyde East, Chief Justice of
the Supreme Court. That led to the foundation of Hindu College, later
renamed Presidency College, Kolkata, on 20 January 1817.

15 / 30

Q Arrange the following organization's Predecessors of the Indian
National Congress in chronological order:

1. Madras Native Association
2. Bombay Presidency Association
3. East India Association
4. Bengal British Indian Society

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2-3-4-1

4-1-3-2

4-3-1-2

3-2-4-1

Explanation:
Option (b) is correct
4. Bengal British Indian Society
1. Madras Native Association
3. East India Association
2. Bombay Presidency Association
Predecessors of the Indian National Congress The Indian National
Congress, founded in December 1885, was the first organised
expression of the Indian National Movement on an all India scale. It had,
however, many predecessors. The earliest public association in modern
India was the Landholders’ Society-an association of the landlords of
Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, founded in 1837 with the purpose of
promoting the class interests of the landlords. Then, in 1843, was
organised the Bengal British Indian Society to protect and promote
general public interests. These two organisations merged in 1851 to
form the British India Association. The Madras Native Association and
the Bombay Association were established in 1852. Lesser-known clubs
and associations, such as the Scientific Society founded by Sayyid
Ahmad Khan, were established in different towns and parts of the
country. All these associations were dominated by wealthy and
aristocratic elements called in those days: prominent persons’-and were
provincial or local in character. In 1866, Dadabhai Naoroji organised the
East India Association in London to discuss the Indian question and to
influence British public men to promote Indian welfare. Later he
organised branches of the association in prominent Indian cities in
1870’s. The Madras Mahajan Babha was started in 1881 and the
Bombay Presidency Association in 1885.

16 / 30

Q With reference to the Mughal dynasty, which of the following
statements is/are correct?

1. They were Chaghtai Turks.
2. Turkish was their mother language.
3. The Mughal court chronicles were written in Persian language.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All statements are correct
Mughal India The name ‘Mughal’ derives from Mongol. The term
evokes the grandeur of an empire, it was not the name the rulers of the
dynasty chose for themselves. They referred to themselves as Timurids,
as descendants of the Turkish ruler Timur on the paternal side. Babur,
the first Mughal ruler, was related to Ghenghiz Khan from his mother’s
side. He spoke Turkish and referred derisively to the Mongols as
barbarIc hordes. As the Mughals were Chaghtai Turks by origin,
Turkish was their mother tongue. Mughal court chronicles were
written in Persian. Under the Sultans of Delhi it flourished as a
language of the court and of literary writings, alongside north Indian
languages, especially Hindavi and its regional variants. It was Akbar
who consciously set out to make Persian the leading language of
the Mughal court. Cultural and intellectual contacts with Iran, as well
as a regular stream of Iranian and Central Asian migrants seeking
positions at the Mughal court, might have motivated the emperor to
adopt the language.

17 / 30

Q The Battle of Plassey paved the way for the British mastery of Bengal
and eventually of the whole of India. Which of the following were the
reasons for the Battle of Plassey?

1. Misuse of dastaks by company’s officials in private capacity
2. Fortification of Calcutta
3. Abolition of duties on internal trade by the Nawab
4. Shifting of capital from Murshidabad to Munger
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: Duties on internal trade were abolished
by Mir Qasim after the Battle of Plassey.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Mir Qasim shifted the capital from
Murshidabad to Munger to allow a safe distance from the company.
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Battle of Plassey The beginnings of
British political sway over India may be traced to the battle of Plassey in
1757, when the English East India Company’s forces defeated SirajudDaulah, the Nawab of Bengal.Causes of the battle: The Company had
secured valuable privileges in 1717 ‘under a royal farman by the Mughal
Emperor, which had granted the Company the freedom to export and
import their goods in Bengal without paying taxes and the right to issue
passes or dastaks for the movement of such goods. The Company’s
servants were also permitted to trade but were not covered by this
Farman and were required to pay the same taxes as Indian merchants.
This Farman was a perpetual source of conflict between the Company and the Nawabs of Bengal. For one, it meant loss of revenue to the
Bengal Government. ‘Secondly, the power to issue dastaks for the
Company’s goods was misused by the Company’s servants to
evade taxes on their private trade. Without taking the Nawab’s
permission, the Company began to fortify Calcutta in expectation of
the coming struggle with the French, who were stationed at this
time at Chandernagore. Siraj·ud·Daulah interpreted this as an attack
on his sovereignty and ordered both the English and French to demolish
their fortifications. While the French obliged, English refused to do so.
This set the stage for a battle which took place on the field of Plassey on
23rd June, 1757. The fateful battle of Plassey was a battle only in name.
In all, the English lost 29 men while the Nawab lost nearly 500. The
major part of the Nawab’s army, led by the traitors Mir Jafar and Rai
Durlabh, took no part in the fighting. After the battle, Mir Jafar was
proclaimed the Nawab of Bengal and the company was granted
undisputed right to free trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. It also
received the zamindari of the 24 Parganas near Calcutta.

18 / 30

Q Consider the following statements regarding the economy of the
Vijaynagara Empire

1. Trade was contributing more to the revenue of the empire than
agriculture.
2. The society was highly egalitarian.
3. Only gold coins were in circulation in the economy.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All statements are incorrect
Agriculture was contributing more to the economy than Industries
and trade.The society was unequal and not egalitarian. Gold,
copper and silver coins all were in circulation. Vijaynagara Empire
The economy of the Vijaynagara Empire was in very sound and healthy
condition.The agriculture was in flourishing condition in Vijayanagar
Empire. Agriculture was essentially the biggest contributor to the
economy in ancient and medieval times. The agricultural wealth was
supplemented by numerous industries, the most important of which
were textiles, mining and metallurgy. The social condition of the empire
was not egalitarian as the houses of the ordinary people were made of
thatched, but nonetheless well built and arranged according to
occupations, in long streets with many open places. The Caste system
was prevalent in the empire. The Sati system was freely sanctioned by
Brahmanas and was very common in the Vijayanagar Empire. Coins
made up of copper, gold and silver were in use in the Vijaynagara
empire.

19 / 30

Q Consider the following statements regarding " Unique Methods of Management of Inherited Disorders (UMMID) initiative" :

To address the burden of inherited disorders.
National Inherited Disorders AdministrationKendra’s) for providing comprehensive clinical care including diagnosis, management.
Training Centres for providing training to the clinicians working in Government hospitals in Biochemical Genetics.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1 , 2 and 3

Explanation:

All statements are correct

DBT- Unique Methods of Management of Inherited Disorders (UMMID) initiativeWith an aim to address the burden of inherited disorders, the Department launched the DBT- Unique Methods of Management of Inherited Disorders (UMMID) initiative. In the first phase of the UMMID initiative, the Department has supported:NIDANKendras (National Inherited Disorders AdministratioNKendras) for providing comprehensive clinical care including diagnosis, management, multidisciplinary care, counseling, prenatal testing at five Government hospitals spread across four states of the country.TrainingCentres for providing training to the clinicians working in Government hospitals in Biochemical Genetics, Cytogenetics, Molecular Genetics, Clinical Genetics and Comprehensive clinical care.

20 / 30

Consider the following statements

COVID-19 belongs to genera Betacoronavirus
Coronaviruses possess the largest genomes among all known DNA viruses
Coronavirus genome replication and transcription takes place at cytoplasmic membranes.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

1 , 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct : The recent emergence of a novel coronavirus with an outbreak of unusual viral pneumonia in Wuhan, China and then pandemic outbreak is 2019-nCoV or COVID-19. Based on its phylogenetic relationships and genomic structures the COVID-19 belongs to genera Betacoronaviruswhich has a close similarity of the sequences of COVID19 to that of severe acute respiratory syndrome-related coronaviruses (SARSr-CoV) and the virus uses ACE2 as the entry receptor-like SARS-CoV.2.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Coronaviruses possess the largest genomes (26.4–31.7 kb) among all known RNA viruses, with G + C contents varying from 32% to 43%

Statement 3 is correct:Coronavirus genome replication and transcription takes place at cytoplasmic membranes and involve coordinated processes of both continuous and discontinuous RNA synthesis that are mediated by the viral replicate, a huge protein complex encoded by the 20-kb replicase gene.

21 / 30

Q Consider the following statements regarding “Genetics” :

A gene is a segment of DNA
In human, plant, and animal cells, the genome is housed in a structure called the nucleus
DNA is shaped like a corkscrew-twisted ladder, called a double helix.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 , 2 and 3

Explanation:

All statements are correct

Genetics is the scientific study of genes and heredity—of how certain qualities or traits are passed from parents to offspring as a result of changes in DNA sequence. A gene is a segment of DNA that contains instructions for building one or more molecules that help the body work. DNA is shaped like a corkscrew-twisted ladder, called a double helix. The two ladder rails are called backbones, and the rungs are pairs of four building blocks (adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine) called bases. The sequences of these bases provide the instructions for building molecules, most of which are proteins. Researchers estimate that humans have about 20,000 genes.All of an organism’s genetic material, including its genes and other elements that control the activity of those genes, is its genome. An organism’s entire genome is found in nearly all of its cells. In human, plant, and animal cells, the genome is housed in a structure called the nucleus. The human genome is mostly the same in all people with just small variations.

22 / 30

Q Consider the following statements regarding “Application of science in every day life” :

A Photometer is used to measure light
Oxygen is the lightest gas
Balanced diet does not include fats.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct : The basic purpose of a photometer is to measure light. Since light comes in all different forms, many different types of photometers exist. Photometry has been around for many years, though photometers have come a long way from their humble beginnings..

Statement 2 is incorrect: Hydrogen, H, is the lightest of all gases and the most abundant element in the universe. It has an atomic number of 1 and an atomic weight of 1.00794

Statement 3 is incorrect :To stay fit, for an optimal health and for well-being, having a healthy or a balanced diet is the must for the human body. All the basic requirements of nutrients including carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins, minerals, fiber, fats and a lot more are included in a balanced diet. This is a healthy diet which provides all the necessary requirements essential for the survival growth and for our body organs to function accurately. A balanced diet could be simply defined as the food that gives the body the nutrients it needs to function properly.

23 / 30

Q Consider the following statements regarding “Application of science in every day life” :

The concept involved in the burning of the fuel is convection.
Juicer converts the electrical energy into potential energy.
In Refrigerator electrical energy is converted to heat energy.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect:

Vehicles: The fuel in the vehicles are burnt in order for the vehicle to get energy. The concept involved in the burning of the fuel is combustion. The conversion of heat energy into electrical energy and mechanical energy takes place. Hence chemistry and physics are involved.Mixer / Juicer:It converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy. It uses the principle of centrifugal force.

Statement 3 is correct:Refrigerator: Electrical energy is converted to heat energy where cooling takes place.

24 / 30

Which of the following statements are true about smart meters?

Smart meters provide information on electricity usage at different times of the day, months, and seasons.
Smart meters can help consumers plan their activities during low-tariff periods.
Smart meters allow consumers to trade solar power directly with their peers.
Smart meters can replace all conventional electric meters by 2025-26.

Choose the correct one

1, 2, and Only

2 and 3 Only

1 and 2 Only

All are correct

Explanation:

According to the given context, statements A and B are true. Smart meters provide information on electricity usage at different times of the day, months, and seasons, and they can help consumers plan their activities during low-tariff periods. However, statement C is incorrect, as there is no mention of smart meters allowing consumers to trade solar power directly with their peers. Statement D is also incorrect, as the context mentions India's plan to replace 250 million conventional electric meters by 2025-26, not all conventional electric meters.

25 / 30

QWhich of the following statements is/are true about the Washington Declaration signed by the US and South Korea on the 70th anniversary of their bilateral relationship?

The declaration aims to protect the Korean Peninsula from nuclear attack.
A US nuclear-armed ballistic missile submarine will be deployed in the Korean Peninsula.
A joint Nuclear Consultative Group will be formed to create principles of joint response tactics.
South Korea will create its own independent nuclear capabilities

Options the correct one

All of the above

Only 1, 2 and 3

Only 1 and 3

Only 1 and 4

Explanation:

The Washington Declaration signed by the US and South Korea on the 70th anniversary of their bilateral relationship aims to protect the Korean Peninsula from nuclear attack. A joint Nuclear Consultative Group will be formed to create principles of joint response tactics. However, there is no mention of a US nuclear-armed ballistic missile submarine being deployed in the Korean Peninsula. The declaration also reaffirms the non-proliferation Treaty, which means South Korea won't create its own independent nuclear capabilities.

26 / 30

QWhich of the following is true about the Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve?

It is located in the state of Maharashtra, India.

The tiger reserve is made up of only one wildlife sanctuary

The predominant species of the forest is Anogeissus latifolia.

The park is located on the eastern bank of the Chambal River.

Explanation:

The passage mentions that the Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve is located in Rajasthan, India, covering four districts. It also states that the tiger reserve is made up of three wildlife sanctuaries: Darrah, Chambal, and Jaswant Sagar. The passage also mentions that the forest in the reserve is of the dry deciduous type, with the predominant species being Anogeissus pendula, and that the park is located on the eastern bank of the Chambal River. Therefore, option D is correct.

27 / 30

QWhat is Listeria infection, and how can it be contracted?

Listeria infection is an illness caused by a virus, and it can be contracted through mosquito bites.

Listeria infection is an illness caused by bacteria, and it can be contracted through contaminated food or water.

Listeria infection is an illness caused by fungi, and it can be contracted through inhaling spores.

Listeria infection is an illness caused by a parasite, and it can be contracted through contact with infected animals.

Explanation:

Listeria infection is caused by a type of bacteria that can be found in the environment and some animals' intestines. The bacteria can survive in refrigeration and freezing temperatures. People can get infected by eating contaminated raw vegetables, meat, unpasteurized milk or milk products, and certain processed foods like soft cheeses, hot dogs, and deli meats. Pregnant women and people with weak immune systems are at the highest risk of contracting a Listeria infection. Prevention is key to avoiding Listeria infection, especially for those at high risk

28 / 30

Which of the following statements is correct about Pulverized Coal Injection (PCI)?

It replaces coke entirely in blast furnaces.

It has only one sub-system for coal injection.

It reduces energy consumption and environmental emissions.

It affects the stability of the blast furnace in a negative way.

29 / 30

Which of the following is correct about Similipal Tiger Reserve?

It is located in the Indian state of Kerala.

It is named after the 'Sissoo' tree

It was designated a tiger reserve in 1973

It is not a biosphere reserve.

Explanation:

Similipal Tiger Reserve is located in the Indian state of Odisha, and it is named after the 'Simul' tree. It was formally designated a tiger reserve in 1956 to protect the Bengal tiger population, and it was brought under Project Tiger in 1973 to conserve tigers and their habitats. It was declared a biosphere reserve by the Government of India in 1994, and it is one of the largest biosphere reserves in India.

30 / 30

Which of the following statements about Hijol is/are correct?

1 Hijol is an evergreen tree that grows up to 20 meters tall.

2.The tree is native to coastal wetlands in southern Asia and northern Australasia.

3.The bark of the tree contains tannin, which is useful for heart diseases.

4.The tree is commonly found in the Amazon rainforest.

2 and 3

1 and 4

2 and 4

2 and 1

Explanation:

The statement 1 is incorrect as Hijol grows up to 15 meters tall, not 20 meters. The statement 2 is correct as Hijol is native to coastal wetlands in southern Asia and northern Australasia. The statement 3 is correct as the bark of the tree contains tannin, which is useful for heart diseases. The statement 4 is incorrect as Hijol is commonly found in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna basin, not the Amazon rainforest.

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Created on June 20, 2023 By

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April Month, Current Affair Quiz

1 / 21

Q Consider the following statements regarding “Application of science in every day life” :

The concept involved in the burning of the fuel is convection.
Juicer converts the electrical energy into potential energy.
In Refrigerator electrical energy is converted to heat energy.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

3 only

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect:

Statement 3 is correct:Refrigerator: Electrical energy is converted to heat energy where cooling takes place.

2 / 21

Q Establishment of the first textile mill:

Bengal Famine
Khilafat Movement
Civil Disobedience movement

Arrange the following event in chronological order:

Option (d) is correct

Establishment of first textile mill: The first textile mill was started in Bombay by CowasjeeNanabhoy in 1853, and the first jute mill in Rishra (Bengal) in 1855 These industries expanded slowly but continuously,
Khilafat Movement: Khilafat Movement was an agitation by Indian Muslims allied with Indian nationalism in the year following World War I. Its purpose was to pressure the British government to preserve the authority of the ottoman sultan as Caliph of Islam.
Civil Disobedience Movement: Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in 1930 under the leadership of Gandhiji. It began with the famous Dandi March of Gandhi.

● Bengal Famine: Bengal Famine of 1943 was a major famine in the Bengal province of British India during World War II. An estimated 2.1-3 million, out of a population of 60.3 million, died of starvation, malaria, or other diseases aggravated by malnutrition, population displacement, unsanitary conditions and lack of health care.

3 / 21

Which of the following was/were the main provisions of the Nehru Report?

Attainment of PurnaSwaraj.
India should be a Federation.
Election should be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Separate electorate for Linguistic Minorities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Recommendations of Nehru Report:

Statement 1 is incorrect: India should be given Dominion Status with the Parliamentary form of Government and a bi-cameral legislature that consists of a Senate and House of Representatives.
The Senate shall comprise of two hundred members elected for seven years, while the House of Representatives shall consist of five hundred members elected for five years.
The Governor-General will act on the advice of the executive council. It was to be collectively responsible to the parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: There should be a Federal form of Government in India with Residuary powers to be vested in Centre.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There will be no separate electorate for minorities because it awakens communal sentiments therefore it should be scrapped and joint electorate should be introduced.
There will be no reserved seats for communities in Punjab and Bengal. However, reservation of Muslim seats could be possible in the provinces where Muslim population is at least ten percent.
Judiciary should be independent from the Executive.
Statement 3 is correct: Nineteen fundamental rights including the right to vote for men and women above 21 years of age, unless disqualified.
There should be 1/4^th Muslim Representation at Centre.
Sindh should be separated from Bombay provided it proves to be financially self-sufficient.

4 / 21

Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the Swaraj Party:

. It was established by Jawaharlal Nehru
It worked as a part of congress but participated in Council Election.
It won all the seats in Central Legislative Assembly in their first election.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Statement 1 is incorrect: In December 1922, Chitranjan Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party with Das as president and Motlilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. The new party was to function as a group within the Congress.

Statement 2 is correct:Swaraj party accepted all of the Congress programme and worked as a part of congress, except in one respect— it would take part in Council elections.

Statement 3 is incorrect:Swaraj party participated in Council elections. Even though the Swarajists had little time for preparations they did very well in the election of November 1923. They won 42 seats out of the 101 elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly. With the cooperation of other Indian groups they repeatedly outvoted the Government in the Central Assembly and in several of the Provincial Councils.

Source: Modern India (NCERT) by Bipin Chandra, Chapter 15- Struggle for Swaraj; Page No. 277-279

5 / 21

Which of the following are the reasons behind the Magadha empire being such a power center in ancient India?

Political marriages
Advance technology
Urbanisation
Access to iron tools

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Political marriages strengthened position of Magadhan rulers. Like Bimbisara married daughter of King of Kosala, Lichchhavi princess from Vaishali and daughter of ruler of Madrajanapada.

Statement 2 is correct: Advance technology like stone throwing war machine and mace attached chariot which facilitated mass destruction. Also access to iron ore helped in advanced weapons.

Statement 3 is correct: Rise of urbanization and economy facilitated in up keeping of large standing army and revenue source.

Statement 4 is correct: The use of better iron tools and weapons enabled some territorial states to become very large and they came to be called mahajanapadas. The use of iron tools and cattle-power in the fertile middle Ganga plain led to the increase of agricultural productivity and the food supply in the sixth century BC. This development of agriculture resulted in growth of towns, trade and money economy

6 / 21

Which of the following are the features of Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

Elaborate walls and gateways.
Presence of river goddess.
Absence of a water tank or reservoirs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Temple premises in Nagara style generally does not have elaborate walls and gateways. In contrast, Dravida style has elaborate walls and gateways around temple premises.

Statement 2 is correct: Images of river goddess Ganga and Yamuna were placed outside the garbhagriha.

Statement 3 is correct: In Nagara style, Temple premises do not have water tank or reservoir inside the temple premises. Whereas in Dravida style, water tanks or reservoirs are present in the temple premises.

About Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

Nagara is the style of temple architecture which became popular in Northern India.
It is common here to build an entire temple on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
Unlike in south India, it doesn’t usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
Earliest temples had only one shikhara (tower), but in the later periods multiple shikharas came.
The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.

7 / 21

Q With reference to the Medieval history of Northern India, consider the following statement:

Sulaiman was an Arab merchant who wrote an account of the Pala Empire.
2. The movement of scholars and goods between India and West Asia discontinued during the period of Pratiharas.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both1 and 2

Neither1 nor 2

Statement 1 is correct:Sulaiman was an Arab merchant, who visited India in the middle of the ninth century, and wrote an account of the Pala Empire. He calls the Pala kingdom Ruhma (or Dharma, short for Dharmapala), and says that the Pala ruler was at war with his neighbors, the Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas, but his troops were more numerous than his adversaries. He tells us that it was customary for the Pala king to be accompanied by a force of a 50,000 elephants, and that 10-15 thousand men were there in his army.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Pratyahara's were patrons of learning and literature. During the eighth and ninth centuries, many Indian scholars went with embassies to the court of the Caliph of Baghdad. The Pratiharas were well-known for their hostility to the Arab rulers of Sindh. Despite this, it seems that the movement of scholars and goods between India and West Asia continued even during this period.

8 / 21

Q Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Iranian relation during 6^th Century BC onwards

. Iranian scribes brought into India Kharosthi language.
Punch-marked coins were introduced for the first time by Iranian rulers in North West India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2