CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

Current Affairs Quiz

Created on August 29, 2023 By

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29th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

The term ʻAdditive Manufacturingʼ (AM) is related to which of the following?

Quantum Technology

Data Centres

Stem Cells

3D Printing

Explanation:

AM/3D Printing is a process in which a three-dimensional object is built from a computer-aided design (CAD) model, usually by successively adding materials in a layer-by-layer fashion. Hence, option d is correct.

2 / 5

Consider the following differences:

Hydrogen is produced through the Haber-Bosch Process, whereas Ammonia is produced through the Steam Methane Reforming process.
There is a need to build new storage facilities for Hydrogen, whereas Ammonia can be stored through existing storage facilities.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Ammonia (NH3) is the basic building block of all nitrogen fertilizers. It is produced primarily through the Haber-Bosch Process, i.e. ammonia production from hydrogen (H2) and nitrogen (N2) through a high-pressure (150-300 bar) exothermic catalytic reaction at 350-500 °C. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
One of the disadvantages of Hydrogen is the lack of existing storage and transport infrastructure. Whereas, Ammonia can be stored in existing safe storage and transportation infrastructure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

3 / 5

The strategic importance of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (ANI) can be explained by

ANI securing the Sea Lines of Communication (SLOC)
India uses ANI to counter Chinese presence in the region.
ANI is the important fulcrum of the Indo-Pacific.

Select the correct code from below:

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Securing SLOC: These islands act as a physical barrier that secures busy Sea Lines of Communications (SLOC) by creating a series of chokepoints: The Preparis Channel in the north, the Ten Degree Channel between the Andaman and Nicobar Island groups, and the Six Degree Channel to the south. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Countering increasing Chinese presence: Chinaʼs efforts to expand its footprint in the IOR to overcome its ʻMalacca Dilemmaʼ (Chinaʼs fear of a maritime blockade at the Straits of Malaccaʼ) and fulfill it's Maritime Silk Roadʼ ambitions have fueled apprehensions about freedom of navigation in these waters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The important fulcrum of Indo-pacific: The ANI is at the intersection of the Indian Ocean and the South China Sea, and further to the Pacific Ocean, an important fulcrum of the strategic concept of the Indo-Pacific. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

4 / 5

With reference to India’s balance of trade, consider the following statements:

India has been a net exporter of Agri products since the economic reforms began in 1991.
Indiaʼs total exports have an 11 percent contribution from agricultural and processed food products.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

5 / 5

Recently in the news, Hyderabad Declaration is related to which of the following?

Corruption

e-Governance

Rural Planning

e-Visas

Explanation:

The 24th National e-Governance Conference unanimously adopted the Hyderabad declaration. The conference was jointly held by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances, in collaboration with the Telangana Government. Hence, option b is correct.

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Created on August 29, 2023 By

admin

28th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

in the news, Jambughoda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following states?

Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka

Gujarat and Karnataka

Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh

Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:

Jambughoda Wildlife Sanctuary: Located 70 km from Vadodara, and 20 km from Champaner, the Jambughoda Wildlife Sanctuary is best combined when visiting these cities. The wildlife sanctuary consists of forested hills with teeming wildlife and avian species. Teak, mahua, and bamboo thickets cover the length and breadth of the forest, which is occupied by wild boars, nilgais (blue bull), jackals, hyenas, barking deer, sloth bears, and chausinghas (four-horned antelope) and leopards. A camping experience near the wildlife is the highlight of the forest. One can book ahead at the forest rest house near the Kada reservoir. The 130.38 sq km sanctuary is a haven for nature lovers.

2 / 5

With respect to the ASTRA missile, consider the following statements

This is an indigenously crafted Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air missile.
The Defence Research and Development Laboratory is responsible for its development.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Tejas, a Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) LSP-7, just successfully launched the ASTRA missile off the coast of Goa on August 23, 2023.
It is an indigenous air-to-air missile with a range of beyond visual range (BVR).
Its mission is to engage and destroy fast-moving supersonic aircraft targets.
Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), Research Centre Imarat (RCI), and other DRDO facilities conceived and developed it.
The domestic Astra BVR firing from a homegrown Tejas fighter is a significant step towards "Aatmanirbhar Bharat."

3 / 5

Which statement accurately describes the concept of Minimum Export Price?

a) In the event of a substantial surge in imports of a commodity

b) If the domestic retail/wholesale price of the commodity elevates

c) In situations where the market supply of the commodity notably rises.

d) None of the above

Explanation:

The Indian government is exploring a minimum export price (MEP) for a range of speciality rice, including the basmati kind, to prevent unscrupulous traders from shipping large quantities abroad.
It is the price at which an exporter may not export a commodity from India.
It is implemented in response to increased domestic retail / wholesale prices or disruptions in the country's production. Option B is correct.

4 / 5

With respect to Zika Virus, consider the following statements:

The virus is transmitted by mosquitoes.
It can also infect humans through blood transfusions.
There is no specific treatment for the disease.

How many of the above-given statements is/are incorrect?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

It is mostly spread to humans via the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito, specifically Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus.
It can also be passed from an infected mother to her infant during pregnancy or childbirth, as well as through sexual contact and blood transfusion.
Symptoms: Many people infected with this virus have no symptoms (asymptomatic).
Fever, rash, joint discomfort, muscle soreness, headache, and red eyes (conjunctivitis) are some of the symptoms that may develop.
Symptoms usually develop two to seven days after being bitten by an infected mosquito and can persist anywhere from a few days to a week.
Although this virus infection is usually mild, it can have devastating effects on pregnant women and their unborn children.
During pregnancy, infection can cause birth defects such as microcephaly, as well as other neurological issues in the newborn.
Guillain-Barré syndrome, a rare autoimmune condition that can cause muscle weakness and paralysis, has also been related to it.
There is currently no treatment available for Zika virus infection or illness. All three statements are correct.

5 / 5

With respect to the Mera Bill Mera Adhikar Scheme, consider the following statements:

The program offers monetary incentives for submitting GST invoices.
It is applicable to invoices provided by all GST-registered suppliers to their customers.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Central Government is set to introduce the much-anticipated 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikar' scheme soon.
It is a Goods and Services Tax (GST) invoice incentive initiative that provides monetary rewards in exchange for uploading invoices.
It will be first implemented in the states of Assam, Gujarat, and Haryana, as well as the union territories of Puducherry, Daman & Diu, and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
The goal is to persuade customers to request a bill whenever they make a purchase.
The programme will apply to all invoices submitted to consumers by GST-registered vendors.
Monthly and quarterly lotteries will be held, with winners eligible for cash rewards ranging from Rs 10,000 to Rs 1 crore.
The invoice must have a minimum purchase value of Rs 200 to be eligible for the lucky draw, and individuals can upload a maximum of 25 invoices per month.
The 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikar' mobile app will be available for both IOS and Android devices.
The GSTIN of the seller, invoice number, amount paid, and tax amount should all be included in the invoice sent to the app. Both statements are correct.

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Created on August 26, 2023 By

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26th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Which of the following statements accurately describes the significance of the Battle of Buxar (1764)?

a) It made the British a powerful factor in the politics of Bengal.

b) It made the British a powerful factor in the politics of North India

c) It helped the company and its servants to amass unimaginable wealth at the cost of the people of Bengal.

d) Victory in the battle played a decisive role in the Anglo-French struggle.

Explanation:

Significance of battle of buxar:
After this battle, the English emerged as the supreme power. Now the Nawab of Bengal was their puppet, the Nawab of Awadh a pliant ally and the Mughal Emperor their pensioner.
Lands from Bengal up to Allahabad lay at their feet and the roads to Delhi were open.
While the Plassey made them, a powerful factor in Bengal politics, Buxar made them a powerful factor in the politics of north India.
In fact, the British now emerged as strong contenders for the Indian Empire.

2 / 5

Concerning the French and English rivalry consider the following pair:

Carnatic War	Treaties
First Carnatic War	Treaty of Pondicherry
Second Carnatic War	Treaty of Aix la Chapelle
Third Carnatic War	Treaty of Paris

How many of the above-given pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

Explanation:

The War of Austrian Succession came to an end with the Treaty of Aix la Chapelle based on mutual restitution of conquests. This brought an end to the first Carnatic war in India as well. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Treaty of Pondicherry ended 2 and the Carnatic War. As per this treaty, both companies agreed not to interfere in the quarrels of the Indian princes. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
After this treaty, the French continued to maintain their hold over Hyderabad for some time, but they had lost much of their prestige and their predominant position in the Deccan had been undermined.
The Third Carnatic War ended officially in 1763 with the conclusion of the Peace of Paris, at the end of the Seven Yearsʼ War.
As per the treaty, Pondicherry and some other French settlements were no doubt returned to France, but these were never to be fortified again and could only function as mere trading centres

3 / 5

Concerning the advent of the Europeans, consider the following pairs

In 1503, the 1st Portuguese factory was set up at Masulipatnam.
In 1605, the first Dutch factory was established at Cochin (Kochi).
In 1613, the English opened their permanent factory at Surat.
In 1668, the French set up their first factory in Surat.

How many of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three

d) All four

xplanation:

The 1st Portuguese factory was set up at Cochin (Kochi). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
In 1605, the first Dutch factory was established at Masulipatnam. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
In 1613, the English opened their permanent factory at Surat.
In 1668, the French set up their first factory at Surat.

4 / 5

Which of the following initiatives can be taken to support state finance?

Reduce State Borrowing Limits
Inclusion of Off-Budget Borrowings for States.
Increasing Ways and Means Advances for States.
Reducing the maximum number of Overdraft days for State

Select the correct code from below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2 and 4

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

In the wake of Covid-19, the Centre as well as RBI has taken several initiatives to support State Finance. These steps are now slowly rationalized with new measures to ensure fiscal discipline:
- Reduced Borrowing Limits: The Centre has reduced borrowing limits for states from 5% of gross state domestic product (GSDP) during COVID-19 to 3.5% for FY 2022-23. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Inclusion of Off-Budget Borrowings: The off-budget borrowings will be considered as borrowings made by the State itself. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Lower Ways and Means Advances (WMA): RBI has lowered the WMA limit for States and Union Territories to ₹47,010 crore from ₹51,560 crore. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Overdraft (OD) Facility: The maximum number of OD days for State Governments/Union Territories (UTs) are reverted to 36 days in a quarter from 50 days by RBI. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

5 / 5

Consider the following statements about local self-government:

The local audit department was first created in 1880 to audit the accounts of municipalities and other local funds.
The Legislature of a Centre by law may make provisions concerning the maintenance of accounts by the Municipalities.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The Local Audit Department was created in 1880 to audit the accounts of municipalities and other local funds by an officer of the Finance Department styled as Examiner of Local Accounts attached to the office of Accountant General. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Under Article 243 Z of the Indian Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions concerning the maintenance of accounts by the Municipalities and the auditing of such accounts. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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Created on August 26, 2023 By

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25ht Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Q Which of the following statements about E-Commerce in India is correct?

(a) India's social commerce is projected to reach US$ 50-55 billion in FY25, growing at a CAGR of 40-45%.

(b) India's e-commerce market is estimated to reach US$ 150 billion by 2024 and US$ 300 billion by 2026.

(c) India has added 80 million online shoppers in the last three years, with another 125 million expected to join by 2025.

(d) In 2022, the Indian e-commerce market is expected to grow by 15.5%, reaching US$ 70.8 billion.

EXPLANATION:

E-Commerce in India:

India’s social commerce has the potential to expand to US$ 16-20 billion in FY25, growing at a CAGR of 55-60%. Hence, Statement (a) is incorrect
India’s e-commerce market is expected to reach US$ 111 billion by 2024 and US$ 200 billion by 2026. Hence, Statement (b) is incorrect
India has gained 125 million online shoppers in the past three years, with another 80 million expected to join by 2025. Hence, Statement (c) is correct.
In 2022, the Indian e-commerce market is predicted to increase by 21.5%, reaching US$ 74.8 billion. Hence, Statement (d) is incorrect.
India’s e-commerce market is expected to reach US$ 350 billion by 2030.

. The provided statement does not align with the information provided in the passage about India's social commerce potential and growth rate.. The provided statement does not align with the projected figures for India's e-commerce market size in the passage.. The passage mentions that India has gained 125 million online shoppers in the past three years and expects another 80 million to join by 2025.. The passage predicts a higher growth rate and market size for the Indian e-commerce market in 2022.

2 / 5

With reference to Tuberculosis, consider the following statements:

Rajasthan became the first state to declare the panchayat areas as tuberculosis-free and announced the target to make the whole state tuberculosis-free by 2025.
India has set the target of eliminating tuberculosis by 2025, five years ahead of the global target.
India is the second largest contributor to global TB cases; however, there has been a decline in the number of cases in 2021.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Tuberculosis

Rajasthan became the first state to declare the panchayat areas as tuberculosis-free and announced the target to make the whole state tuberculosis-free by 2025.
India has set the target of eliminating tuberculosis by 2025, five years ahead of the global target.
India continues to be the largest contributor to global TB cases, there has been a decline in the number of cases in 2021. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct
Reporting of TB cases also improved in 2021 – although it didn’t reach the pre-pandemic levels, it bounced back from the lows seen during the first year of the pandemic, according to the Global TB Report 2022.
To achieve the TB elimination target of 2025, the government has taken several steps including looking for cases actively among vulnerable and co-morbid populations, screening for them at the health and wellness centres, and calling on the private sector to notify all TB cases.

3 / 5

With reference to BRICS, consider the following statements:

The bloc was formed in 2009 with Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates have been invited to join as full members from January 1, 2025.
South Africa was the first nation to join BRICS after its original formation.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

The BRICS bloc of top emerging economies has taken a major step in expanding its reach and influence with the announcement that six more nations have been invited to join as new members.
Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates have been invited to join as full members from January 1 2025.
The bloc, which was formed in 2009 with Brazil, Russia, India and China, first expanded to admit South Africa in 2010.
Before the start of its annual summit in South Africa this week, more than 40 countries had expressed interest in joining BRICS, and 23 formally applied to join.

4 / 5

Q Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The Black Sea Grain Initiative aimed to ensure safe transportation of grain and foodstuffs from Ukrainian ports.

(b) The initiative was a cooperative agreement between Russia, Ukraine, European Union, and the United Nations during the Russian invasion of Ukraine.

(d) Russia temporarily suspended its own grain exports, worsening the global food supply situation.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: The Black Sea Grain Initiative was indeed focused on the safe transportation of grain and foodstuffs from Ukrainian ports during a challenging time.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The initiative involved cooperation among Russia, Ukraine, Turkey, and the United Nations to address the impact of the Russian invasion of Ukraine. European Union was nowhere involved in this initiative.

Statement 3 is correct: The Russian invasion of Ukraine actually led to a complete halt of maritime grain shipments from Ukraine via the Black Sea, causing disruption in the global food supply.

Statement 4 is correct: Russia temporarily suspended its own grain exports, which contributed to exacerbating the global food supply situation.

5 / 5

Q Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) A generic drug is created to be different from an existing approved brand name drug.

(b) India's high per capita out-of-pocket expenditure makes generic medicines a cost-saving option.

(c) The "Jan Aushadhi" initiative aims to provide branded medicines to poor people. (d) The Medical Council of India recommended promoting the use of generic drugs in prescription.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is incorrect: A generic drug is designed to be the same as an existing approved brand name drug, not different.

Statement 2 is correct: India's high out-of-pocket expenditure on healthcare makes generic medicines an attractive option as they can significantly reduce costs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The "Jan Aushadhi" initiative aims to provide unbranded quality medicines to poor people at an affordable price, not branded medicines.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Medical Council of India recommended promoting the use of generic drugs in prescriptions, not branded drugs.

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Created on August 26, 2023 By

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24th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Q Mushkbudji, an aromatic rice variety, was recently granted GI (Geographical Indication) certification. It is cultivated in the

a) Kottayam

b) Araku Valley

c) Kashmir

d) Kanyakumari

Explanation:

Mushkbudji, an aromatic rice variety from Kashmir, recently secured a Geographical Indication (GI) Tag. Distinguished by its short, bold grains and rich fragrance, Mushkbudji was traditionally reserved for special occasions because of its rarity and premium price. This rice was among nine products from Jammu and Kashmir that were recently honored with the GI tag. Hence, option c is correct.

2 / 5

Consider the following pairs:

Constitutional Article	Description
Article 351	directs the Union to promote Hindi as a means of expression across India, potentially overshadowing other languages.
Article 352	establishes a ‘Special Officer’ to address matters concerning linguistic minorities and report them to the President.
Article 354	mandates the state to provide primary education in the mother tongue.

How many of the above-given pairs are/are correctly matched?

a) Only one pair

b) Only two pairs

c) All three pairs

d) None

Explanation:

Article 351: Aims to promote the spread of the Hindi language and develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India. It does not aim to overshadow other languages. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Article 350A: Obliges every state and Union territory in India to ensure that primary education is provided in the mother tongue of the child. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
Article 350B: Appoints a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities whose duty is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities and report to the President upon those matters. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

3 / 5

Q Concerning Megaliths in India, consider the following statements:

Megaliths in India were primarily built as burial grounds or memorial markers.
While most megaliths in India date back to the Iron Age.
Their presence is widespread across the subcontinent, with a significant concentration in Northern India.

How many of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

Explanation:

Megaliths in India were built both as burial places and as commemorative memorials. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
These structures, part of a global Megalithic culture spanning from the Neolithic Stone Age to the early Historical Period (2500 BC to AD 200), predominantly belong to the Iron Age (1500 BC to 500 BC) in India, though some predate the Iron Age, going back to 2000 BC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
While megaliths are found throughout the Indian subcontinent, they predominantly exist in peninsular India, especially in Maharashtra's Vidarbha region, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

4 / 5

Consider the following about the Indian Post Payments Bank (IPPB)

It was established under the Ministry of Commerce.
They cannot issue loans or credit cards.
The Indian government holds a 100% stake in IPPB.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

5 / 5

Q Recently in the news LUPEX, a space mission is a collaboration of which of the following countries?

a) India and USA

b) India and Russia

c) India and UK

d) India and Japan

Explanation:

Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) is a collaborative venture between the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and the Bengaluru-headquartered Indian space agency. JAXA and ISRO are developing the rover and lander, respectively. Hence, option d is correct.

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Created on August 26, 2023 By

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25ht Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Q Which of the following statements about E-Commerce in India is correct?

(a) India's social commerce is projected to reach US$ 50-55 billion in FY25, growing at a CAGR of 40-45%.

(b) India's e-commerce market is estimated to reach US$ 150 billion by 2024 and US$ 300 billion by 2026.

(c) India has added 80 million online shoppers in the last three years, with another 125 million expected to join by 2025.

(d) In 2022, the Indian e-commerce market is expected to grow by 15.5%, reaching US$ 70.8 billion.

EXPLANATION:

E-Commerce in India:

India’s social commerce has the potential to expand to US$ 16-20 billion in FY25, growing at a CAGR of 55-60%. Hence, Statement (a) is incorrect
India’s e-commerce market is expected to reach US$ 111 billion by 2024 and US$ 200 billion by 2026. Hence, Statement (b) is incorrect
India has gained 125 million online shoppers in the past three years, with another 80 million expected to join by 2025. Hence, Statement (c) is correct.
In 2022, the Indian e-commerce market is predicted to increase by 21.5%, reaching US$ 74.8 billion. Hence, Statement (d) is incorrect.
India’s e-commerce market is expected to reach US$ 350 billion by 2030.

2 / 5

With reference to Tuberculosis, consider the following statements:

Rajasthan became the first state to declare the panchayat areas as tuberculosis-free and announced the target to make the whole state tuberculosis-free by 2025.
India has set the target of eliminating tuberculosis by 2025, five years ahead of the global target.
India is the second largest contributor to global TB cases; however, there has been a decline in the number of cases in 2021.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Tuberculosis

Rajasthan became the first state to declare the panchayat areas as tuberculosis-free and announced the target to make the whole state tuberculosis-free by 2025.
India has set the target of eliminating tuberculosis by 2025, five years ahead of the global target.
India continues to be the largest contributor to global TB cases, there has been a decline in the number of cases in 2021. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct
Reporting of TB cases also improved in 2021 – although it didn’t reach the pre-pandemic levels, it bounced back from the lows seen during the first year of the pandemic, according to the Global TB Report 2022.
To achieve the TB elimination target of 2025, the government has taken several steps including looking for cases actively among vulnerable and co-morbid populations, screening for them at the health and wellness centres, and calling on the private sector to notify all TB cases.

3 / 5

With reference to BRICS, consider the following statements:

The bloc was formed in 2009 with Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates have been invited to join as full members from January 1, 2025.
South Africa was the first nation to join BRICS after its original formation.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

The BRICS bloc of top emerging economies has taken a major step in expanding its reach and influence with the announcement that six more nations have been invited to join as new members.
Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates have been invited to join as full members from January 1 2025.
The bloc, which was formed in 2009 with Brazil, Russia, India and China, first expanded to admit South Africa in 2010.
Before the start of its annual summit in South Africa this week, more than 40 countries had expressed interest in joining BRICS, and 23 formally applied to join.

4 / 5

Q Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The Black Sea Grain Initiative aimed to ensure safe transportation of grain and foodstuffs from Ukrainian ports.

(b) The initiative was a cooperative agreement between Russia, Ukraine, European Union, and the United Nations during the Russian invasion of Ukraine.

(d) Russia temporarily suspended its own grain exports, worsening the global food supply situation.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is correct: The Black Sea Grain Initiative was indeed focused on the safe transportation of grain and foodstuffs from Ukrainian ports during a challenging time.

Statement 3 is correct: The Russian invasion of Ukraine actually led to a complete halt of maritime grain shipments from Ukraine via the Black Sea, causing disruption in the global food supply.

Statement 4 is correct: Russia temporarily suspended its own grain exports, which contributed to exacerbating the global food supply situation.

5 / 5

Q Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) A generic drug is created to be different from an existing approved brand name drug.

(b) India's high per capita out-of-pocket expenditure makes generic medicines a cost-saving option.

(c) The "Jan Aushadhi" initiative aims to provide branded medicines to poor people. (d) The Medical Council of India recommended promoting the use of generic drugs in prescription.

EXPLANATION:

Statement 1 is incorrect: A generic drug is designed to be the same as an existing approved brand name drug, not different.

Statement 2 is correct: India's high out-of-pocket expenditure on healthcare makes generic medicines an attractive option as they can significantly reduce costs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The "Jan Aushadhi" initiative aims to provide unbranded quality medicines to poor people at an affordable price, not branded medicines.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Medical Council of India recommended promoting the use of generic drugs in prescriptions, not branded drugs.

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Created on August 22, 2023 By

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22nd Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Which of the following is/are the features of Palm Cockatoo?

It is also referred to as the Goliath cockatoo.
It features a prominent black beak complemented by striking red cheek patches.

Select the correct code from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Also referred to as the goliath cockatoo or great black cockatoo, this parrot from the cockatoo family boasts a large smoky-grey or black hue. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It features a prominent black beak complemented by striking red cheek patches. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

2 / 5

Consider the following two statements:

Statement I:

As per the definition by the RBI, personal loans are those extended to individuals, encompassing consumer credit, educational loans, credits for the creation or enhancement of immovable properties, and loans aimed at investing in financial assets.

Statement II:

In a housing loan agreement, the interest rate reset clause permits the lender to reevaluate and adjust the interest rate following a predetermined period, in alignment with the loan's designated reset date.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

b) Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation:

As defined by the RBI, personal loans are credits provided to individuals, encompassing consumer credit, educational loans, loans designated for the development or improvement of immovable properties (like home loans), and loans for investing in financial instruments such as shares and debentures.
As of June 2023, the cumulative outstanding amount in the personal loan segment stood at Rs 42.60 lakh crore, constituting approximately 30% of the non-food bank credit.
If a borrower avails a home loan, the loan agreement's interest rate reset clause permits the lender to revisit and potentially adjust the interest rate after a specified duration, in line with the loan's pre-determined reset date.
The reset rate becomes the renewed interest rate that the borrower is obliged to pay starting from the designated reset date.
For a floating rate loan, the EMI fluctuates with periodic adjustments in the reset interest rates.
These rates and their determinations vary across banks since each bank's cost of funds isn't the same. Hence, both Statement-I and Statement II are accurate, but Statement II doesn't provide the right justification for Statement-I.

3 / 5

With respect to Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), which of the following statements incorrect?

a) The primary objective of the LRS is to liberalize the existing foreign exchange.

b) The scheme aims to promote and encourage non-residents to invest in India.

c) It is a scheme that enables Indian residents to remit funds abroad for certain specified purposes.

d) It was introduced by the Ministry of Commerce.

Explanation:

Liberalized remittance scheme (LRS) was introduced in India in 2004 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Hence, option d is incorrect.

4 / 5

Recently, India has observed a steep rise in onion prices. What could be the possible reason for this?

There was a shortage in production.
Unseasonal rains and hailstorm has caused damage to Rabi crops.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

BRICS is no formal multilateral organisation like the United Nations, World Bank, or the Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A rotating chairmanship of the group is held every year by the heads of state and the governments of the member nations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The founding members are, evidently, Brazil, Russia, India, and China. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

5 / 5

Consider the following about BRICS:

BRICS is not a formal multilateral organisation.
It has a clause of rotating chairmanship that is held every year.
India is not a founding member of the BRICS.

How many of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

Explanation:

BRICS is no formal multilateral organisation like the United Nations, World Bank, or the Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A rotating chairmanship of the group is held every year by the heads of state and the governments of the member nations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The founding members are, evidently, Brazil, Russia, India, and China. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

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Created on August 22, 2023 By

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21st Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Consider the following pairs:

Dams	Rivers
Mettur Dam	Kaveri
Pong Dam	Sutlej
Bhakara Dam	Beas
Indira Sagar Dam	Narmada

How many of the above-given pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) Only one pair

b) Only two pairs

c) Only three pairs

d) All four pairs

Explanation:

Mettur Dam: Located where the Kaveri River enters the plains, the Mettur Dam stands as one of India's largest dams and is the most expansive in Tamil Nadu. Completed in 1934, the construction spanned 9 years. The dam rises to a maximum height of 214 feet and stretches 171 feet wide. Besides its catchment area, the dam receives water from the Kabini Dam and Krishna Raja Sagara Dams situated in Karnataka. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
Pong Dam: Positioned on the Beas River in Himachal Pradesh, this dam is also referred to as the Pong Reservoir or Maharana Pratap Sagar. Its construction served purposes like irrigation, hydroelectric power production, and flood mitigation. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
Bhakra Dam: This dam, one of India's major multipurpose dams, is found on the Sutlej River, near the boundary of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
Indira Sagar Dam: Situated on the Narmada River in Narmada Nagar, Punasa within Madhya Pradesh's Khandwa district, the Indira Sagar Dam holds the distinction of being India's largest in terms of reservoir water volume. India's then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi, laid the foundation stone for this project on 23 October 1984. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

2 / 5

Q Recently in the news, ‘We20 People’s Summit’ is related to which of the following?

a) ASEAN

b) G20

c) International Science Congress

d) India-Africa Forum Summit

Explanation:

The ‘We20’ people’s summit aims to present a mirror of reality in contrast to the glitz surrounding the G20 summit that India is set to host. The G20 Leaders' Summit is scheduled to be held at the Bharat Mandapam International Exhibition-Convention Centre on September 9-10. Hence, option b is correct.

3 / 5

Recently, the official data revealed that vegetable prices surged by 12%. Which of the following can be considered as the reasons for the price surge?

The rise in prices can be attributed to the erratic monsoon.
The intense heatwave was followed by intermittent rainfall.

Select the correct code from below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The rise in prices can be attributed to the erratic monsoon that has swept across parts of the country, coupled with subsequent flooding in certain North Indian plains. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Traders and farmers point to a combination of factors that have contributed to the current price hike.
The initial intense heatwave was followed by intermittent rainfall, and now, the surplus rainfall has severely disrupted the fresh vegetable supply chain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The excessive moisture has caused crop damage and hindered transportation, resulting in reduced supply and increased prices.

4 / 5

With reference to the Registration of Birth and Death (RBD) Act, 1969, consider the following statements:

The 1969 Act, put the responsibility of registering births and deaths on Local Bodies.
It is mandatory to register births and deaths under the Act.
A Chief Registrar is appointed in every State for the executive authority for the implementation of the Act.

How many of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

Explanation:

Registration of Births and Deaths in India is mandatory with the enactment of the RBD, Act 1969 and is done as per the place of occurrence of the event. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Under the RBD Act, it is the responsibility of the States to register births and deaths. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
State governments have set up facilities for registering births and deaths and keeping records.
A Chief Registrar appointed in every State is the executive authority for the implementation of the Act. A hierarchy of officials at the district and lower levels do the work. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The RGI, appointed under this Act, is responsible for coordinating and unifying the implementation of the RBD Act.

5 / 5

With respect to India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement (FTA), consider the following statements:

ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement was signed in 2010.
ASEAN-India Trade in Services Agreement was signed in 2014.
ASEAN-India Trade-in Investment Agreement was signed in 2014.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement was signed and entered into force on 1 January 2010. Under the Agreement, ASEAN Member States and India have agreed to open their respective markets by progressively reducing and eliminating duties on 76.4% coverage of goods. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The ASEAN-India Trade in Services Agreement was signed in November 2014. It contains provisions on transparency, domestic regulations, recognition, market access, national treatment and dispute settlement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The ASEAN-India Investment Agreement was also signed in November 2014. The Investment Agreement stipulates the protection of investment to ensure fair and equitable treatment for investors, non-discriminatory treatment in expropriation or nationalisation as well as fair compensation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Created on August 21, 2023 By

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19th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Recently, both Maui Island and the town of Lahaina have been in the spotlight due to:

a) Military coup

b) Wildfires

c) For a severe Typhoon

d) For severe flood situation

Explanation:

Massive wildfires have swept through the US state of Hawaii, resulting in 55 casualties.
The destruction has been extensive, with power lines down and more than 675 acres of land scorched. In a media briefing, State Governor Josh Green mentioned that the town of Lahaina has faced near-total devastation. Hence, option b is correct.

2 / 5

With respect to Melanin, consider the following statements:

It's a substance in the human body responsible for the colour in hair, eyes, and skin.
Those with more melanin exhibit lighter skin, eyes, and hair compared to those with lesser melanin.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Melanin is a heterogeneous polymer found across life forms and has roles in pigmentation, environmental adaptation, and species survival. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
People with more melanin generally have darker skin, eyes and hair compared to those with little melanin. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

3 / 5

Q Which of the following accurately characterizes the 'Pibot' recently mentioned in the media?

a) It is a submersible vehicle.

b) It is a humanoid pilot.

c) It is a next-generation spacecraft.

d) It is a satellite for Earth observation.

Explanation:

Engineers and researchers from the Korea Advanced Institute of Science and Technology (KAIST) are currently developing a humanoid robot named 'Pibot' capable of piloting aircraft without any alterations to the cockpit.
The robot can store information from aircraft operation and emergency manuals (QRH, a reference for flight crews during in-flight issues) and react promptly. Hence, option b is correct.

4 / 5

With respect to Tarkunde Committee, consider the following statements:

A committee was established in India to review and suggest changes to the nation's electoral system.
One of its recommendations was to reduce the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
They also recommended that television and radio be overseen by an independent legislative body.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In India, the Tarkunde Committee was set up to examine and suggest changes to the national electoral system. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Tarkunde Committee's report pinpointed various crucial issues and offered multiple recommendations for electoral reform in India. Key among these were:
- Advocating for the reduction of the voting age from 21 to 18 years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The recommendation that the electoral commission be comprised of three members.
- Suggesting that television and radio broadcasting come under the purview of a distinct legislative body. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

5 / 5

With respect to ‘Sedition in India’, consider the following statements:

Under Section 124A, sedition carries a maximum sentence of three years imprisonment.
Prominent leaders like Lokmanya Tilak, Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Bhagat Singh were charged with sedition by the British using these laws.
In the case of Kedar Nath Singh vs. the State of Bihar in 1962, the Supreme Court characterized sedition as actions aimed at inciting disorder, anarchy, or promoting violence.

How many of the above-given statements is/are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

Explanation:

The offence is non-bailable. Penalties under Section 124A can vary from a three-year jail term to a life sentence, accompanied by a monetary fine. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Sedition laws were employed by the British to prosecute notable freedom activists like Lokmanya Tilak, Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Bhagat Singh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In the 1962 case of Kedar Nath Singh vs. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court delineated sedition as actions designed to incite disorder, promote lawlessness, or foster violence. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Created on August 14, 2023 By

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12th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Exercise 'Zayed Talwar' is conducted between which of the following countries?

(a) India and Oman

(b) India and Indonesia

(d) India and Malayasia

Exercise 'Zayed Talwar': Boosting Maritime Partnership

Bilateral Naval Exercise: Ships INS Visakhapatnam and INS Trikand visit Port Rashid, Dubai, for bilateral exercise 'Zayed Talwar'.
Objectives: Enhance maritime partnership, foster common understanding of security challenges in the region.
Other Bilateral Exercises: In-UAE BILAT (naval), Desert Eagle-II (air force), Exercise Desert Flag-VI.
India-UAE Relations: Diplomatic relations since 1972, UAE among India's top trading partners.

2 / 5

Which of these statements given below is incorrect regarding Havana Syndrome?

(a) It is a disease of a set of mental health symptoms.

(b) Its origin is traced back to Guyana Islands in late 2016, speculated to be related to "sonic attacks".

(c) Its possible causes include high-powered microwaves damaging nervous system and potential involvement of microwave weapons.

(d) Its symptoms include unusual sounds, nausea, vertigo, headaches, memory loss, and balance issues.

EXPLANATION:

Havana Syndrome: Uncovering Mysterious Health Condition

Central Govt's Response: Karnataka HC petition regarding 'Havana Syndrome', a set of mental health symptoms.
Havana Syndrome: Symptoms include unusual sounds, nausea, vertigo, headaches, memory loss, and balance issues.
Origins: Traced back to Havana (Cuba) in late 2016, speculated to be related to "sonic attacks". Hence, Option (b) is incorrect.
Possible Causes: High-powered microwaves damaging nervous system, potential involvement of microwave weapons.
US Studies: Suggest victims exposed to high-powered microwaves through unknown means.
No Conclusive Evidence: Existence of "microwave weapons" not definitively proven.

3 / 5

Consider the following statements regarding Sarus crane:

1. It is a large non-migratory crane found only in India.
2. It is classified as 'vulnerable' under the IUCN Red List.
3. It has been declared as the state bird of Uttar Pradesh in 2014.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Explanation:

The Sarus crane (Grus antigone) is a large bird belonging to the crane family, Gruidae. It is known for its distinctive appearance, with a tall stature, long legs, and a red crown on its head. Sarus cranes are found in various parts of the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia and Australia. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It is classified as 'vulnerable' under the IUCN Red List and listed under Schedule IV of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972. It has been declared as the state bird of Uttar Pradesh in 2014. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct.

4 / 5

With reference to EG.5 or Eris, consider the following statements:

1. EG.5 or Eris is a variant of SARS-CoV-2.
2. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has classified the EG.5 as “variant of high consequence”.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

Explanation: EG.5 or Eris is a variant of SARS-CoV-2 was first reported on February 2023 and designated as a variant under monitoring (VUM) on July 2023 by the World Health Organisation (WHO). In August 2023, the WHO designated EG.5 and its sub-lineages as a variant of interest (VOI). Variants are broadly categorised by WHO into 3 categories:

“variants of interest”
“variants of concern”
“variants of high consequence”

The World Health Organisation (WHO) has classified the EG.5 as a "variant of interest". EG.5 is a descendent lineage of Omicron subvariant XBB.1.9.2. It carries an additional mutation in the spike protein which the SARS-CoV-2 uses to enter and infect the human cells compared to the parent subvariant. In India, only one case of EG.5 has been reported so far from Pune in May this year. Globally, there has been a steady increase in the proportion of EG.5. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

5 / 5

Consider the following pairs:

Original Acts	Bills Proposed
1. Indian Penal Code, 1860	Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita Bill, 2023
2. Criminal Procedure Code, 1898	Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023
3. Indian Evidence Act, 1872	Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, 2023

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Indian Penal Code, 1860 will be replaced by Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023, the Criminal Procedure Code, 1898 will be replaced by the Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita Bill, 2023 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 will be replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, 2023.
Key bills introduced: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, Bharatiya Sakshya Bill.
Purpose: Modernize, transform, prioritize justice.
Replacements for outdated laws.
Amendments, special provisions for women, children.
Focus on digitalization of the criminal justice system

Hence, only pair 3 is correctly matched.

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Created on August 12, 2023 By

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11th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

With reference to Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission, consider the following statements:

It was announced in Union Budget 2023-24.
The mission is being implemented by Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
It is aimed at providing safe housing, clean water, sanitation, sustainable livelihood.
Rs. 15,000 crores will be allocated from Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes over three years for the implementation of the scheme.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 1, 3 & 4

(d) All of the above

EXPLANATION:

Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission

Announcement: Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission in Budget 2023-24.
Aim: Improve socio-economic conditions of particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs).
Objectives: Provide safe housing, clean water, sanitation, sustainable livelihood.
Funding: Rs. 15,000 crore from Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes over three years.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):

Definition: More vulnerable than regular Scheduled Tribes.
Characteristics: Homogenous, small population, isolation, simple technology.
Identification: 75 PVTGs identified in the country.
Criteria: Pre-agricultural technology, low literacy, economic backwardness, stagnant or declining population.

2 / 5

With reference to Compulsory Convertible Debentures (CCD), consider the following statements

1 CCDs are debentures with an underlying characteristic of compulsory conversion into equity after a certain period of time
2 CCDs are a type of hybrid instrument, i.e. it is neither considered a pure debt nor pure equity.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:
Compulsorily Convertible Debentures (CCDs) Tax Notices to Investors:
CCD Definition: Bond converting into stock within specified time.
Hybrid Security: Between bonds and stocks.
CCD Benefits: Attracts investors, lower interest rates, equity conversion.
Notices have been sent to foreign investors hailing from Mauritius, Cyprus, and Singapore regarding the profits derived from their investments in Convertible Compulsory Debentures (CCDs) issued by Indian firms. CCDs, which possess the unique trait of mandatory conversion into equity after a specific timeframe, represent a hybrid financial instrument that doesn't fit neatly into either the debt or equity category. These CCDs offer a conversion element that serves as an added incentive for investors beyond the interest earnings.

3 / 5

Consider the following cities of Uttar Pradesh:
1. Agra
 2. Aligarh 
3. Lucknow 
4. Kanpur
 5. Chitrakoot 
6. Jhansi
How many of the above districts are nodes of Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor (UPDIC)?

(a) Only Three 

(b) Only Four

(d) All six

Explanation:
The Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor (UPDIC) is a transformative initiative led by Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. Originating from an investors' summit in 2018, UPDIC aims to establish Uttar Pradesh as a global hub for defence and aerospace manufacturing.
Objectives & Features:
Empower India in defence and aerospace.
6 strategic nodes: Agra, Aligarh, Lucknow, Kanpur, Chitrakoot, Jhansi.
Infrastructure, technology, agriculture focus.
Connects western, central, Bundelkhand regions.
6 expressways, 16 domestic, 5 international airports

4 / 5

What is the significance of the Belem Declaration?

(a) It established the United Nations after World War II.

(b) It initiated the European Union's common market.

(d) It led to the creation of the UNEP.

EXPLANATION:
The Belem Declaration is a statement released during the Amazon Summit, involving leaders from Amazon countries.
It emphasizes the importance of Indigenous knowledge for biodiversity conservation and calls for Indigenous Peoples’ participation in decision-making.
The declaration promotes sustainable forest use and diverse economic solutions, addressing concerns about deforestation and degradation in the Amazon region.
It also underlines the need to protect land rights to prevent deforestation and preserve biodiversity within Indigenous territories.

5 / 5

Which of the following is/are part(s) of the initiatives to Combat Land Degradation?
1 Mauna Loa is the tallest peak on the island of Maui.
2 Kilauea is an inactive shield volcano in Hawaii.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
The island of Hawaii, commonly referred to as the Big Island, is one of the eight main islands of the Hawaiian archipelago. It falls within the state of Hawaii, which is part of the United States of America.
Mauna Kea is the tallest peak in Hawaii, standing at an elevation of about 13,796 feet (4,205 meters) above sea level. It is known for its observatories located at its summit. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Kilauea is an active shield volcano located on the Big Island of Hawaii. It is known for its continuous volcanic activity, including frequent eruptions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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Created on August 12, 2023 By

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10th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

With reference to Solar Power Capacity of India, consider the following statements ：

The total installed solar power capacity in India has reached 70.1 GW, as of the latest update.
India aims to achieve a renewable capacity of 175 GW by 2022 and an impressive 500 GW by 2025.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Solar Power Capacity of India:

Context:

The total installed solar power capacity in India has reached 70.1 GW, as of the latest update.

Solar Potential Assessment:
- National Institute of Solar Energy projects India's solar potential at a staggering 748 GW, considering wasteland coverage with Solar PV modules.
Ambitious Renewable Goals:
- India aims to achieve a renewable capacity of 175 GW by 2022 and an impressive 500 GW by 2030, marking a significant expansion plan in the renewable energy sector.
Solar PV Leadership:
- India ranks second in Asia and third globally for new solar PV capacity, with 13 GW added in 2021.
- It stands fourth in total solar installations, surpassing Germany for the first time.
Leading Solar Energy Producers:
- Key states contributing significantly to solar energy production: Rajasthan, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.
Operational Schemes:
Various operational schemes are in place to boost solar energy generation, including the Solar Park Scheme, Grid-Connected Solar PV Power Projects, and more.

2 / 5

With reference to Incident Response System (IRS), consider the following statements ：

NDMA issued guidelines for IRS under Section 6 of the DM Act, 2005.
It aims for effective, efficient, and comprehensive disaster management in India.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Incident Response System (IRS):

Current Implementation Status:
- Several states and Union territories (UTs) have not yet implemented the Incident Response System (IRS), which is essential for disaster response.
IRS Overview:

- IRS involves a composite team with various sections to address all potential disaster response requirements.
- Designates officers for various duties and provides training in respective roles.
- Emphasizes documentation for better planning, accountability, and analysis.
- Aims to reduce chaos and confusion during disaster response.
Guidelines and Vision:
- NDMA issued guidelines for IRS under Section 6 of the DM Act, 2005.
- Aims for effective, efficient, and comprehensive disaster management in India.
- Vision of IRS: Minimize loss of life and property through a standardized disaster response mechanism.
- Reduces ad-hoc measures in disaster response.

IRS Organization:

Flexibility: IRS is a flexible system where not all sections need activation simultaneously.
Predefined Roles: Roles and duties are predetermined, and personnel are trained accordingly.

3 / 5

Q Maya operating system’ recently seen is news is implemented by which of the following ministries?

(a) Ministry of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

(d) Ministry of Defence

EXPLANATION:

Maya Operating System: Ministry of Defence to replace Microsoft OS with Maya Operating System, based on open-source Ubuntu developed locally. Change due to increasing cyber and malware attacks on defense and critical infrastructure.

3. Tharosaurus Indicus is a fossil of

(a) Frog

(b) Snake

(d) Dinosaur

CORRECT ANSWER: (d) Dinosaur

EXPLANATION:

Tharosaurus Indicus (Dinosaur Fossil Discovery):

Discovery and Name:
- Oldest fossil remains of a long-necked, plant-eating dicraeosaurid dinosaur discovered in Jaisalmer.
- Named Tharosaurus indicus after the Thar desert and its country of origin.
- Previous dicraeosaurid fossils found in other continents but not in India.

4 / 5

With reference to Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission, consider the following statements:

It was announced in Union Budget 2023-24.
The mission is being implemented by Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
It is aimed at providing safe housing, clean water, sanitation, sustainable livelihood.
Rs. 15,000 crores will be allocated from Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes over three years for the implementation of the scheme.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 1, 3 & 4

(d) All of the above

EXPLANATION:

Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission

Announcement: Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission in Budget 2023-24.
Aim: Improve socio-economic conditions of particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs).
Objectives: Provide safe housing, clean water, sanitation, sustainable livelihood.
Funding: Rs. 15,000 crore from Development Action Plan for Scheduled Tribes over three years.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):

Definition: More vulnerable than regular Scheduled Tribes.
Characteristics: Homogenous, small population, isolation, simple technology.
Identification: 75 PVTGs identified in the country.
Criteria: Pre-agricultural technology, low literacy, economic backwardness, stagnant or declining population.

5 / 5

Which of the following is/are part(s) of the initiatives to Combat Land Degradation?
1. National Forest Policy (NFP) 1988
2. National Mission for a Green India
3. Forest Fire Protection & Management Scheme (FFPM
4. Compensatory Afforestation Fund
5. Nagar Van Yojana (NVY)

Choose the correct option:

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 3

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Land Restoration and Afforestation:

Introduction:
- Recent initiatives in India aimed at combating land degradation and promoting afforestation have been highlighted.
Nagar Van Yojana (NVY):
- Introduced in 2020 with the goal of creating urban forests (Nagar Vans) in cities with local bodies.
- Aims to provide healthier urban environments and contribute to sustainability.
- Key features include creating green spaces, raising awareness about biodiversity, and promoting environmental improvement.
Initiatives to Combat Land Degradation:
- National Forest Policy (NFP) 1988: Aims for one-third of total land area under forest or tree cover for ecological balance and prevention of soil erosion.
- National Mission for a Green India (GIM): Part of National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) to enhance forest and tree cover.
- Forest Fire Protection & Management Scheme (FFPM): Focuses on preventing and managing forest fires.
- Compensatory Afforestation Fund: Utilizes funds for afforestation projects in lieu of forest land diversion.
State-Specific Initiatives:
- Mission Haritha Haram: Telangana's program to increase green cover.
- Green Wall: Haryana's plan for a green belt around Aravalli range.

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Created on August 11, 2023 By

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9th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Which of the following is not an advantage of Biomass Co-firing?

Carbon Emission Reduction.

Renewable Energy Integration.

Reduction of Coral Bleaching

Utilization of Biomass Waste.

EXPLANATION:

Union Minister for Power and New & Renewable Energy highlights Revised Biomass Policy.
47 Thermal Power Plants incorporate co-firing of coal with biomass pellets.

Revised Biomass Policy

Integration of agro residue-based biomass pellets in Thermal Power Plants.
Mandates 5% biomass co-firing from 2024-25, increasing to 7% in 2025-26.

Government Interventions Related to Biomass Co-firing

Financial Assistance for biomass pellet manufacturing units.
Biomass manufacturing under Priority Sector Lending.
Dedicated Procurement Provision on Government e-Marketplace.
Revised Model Long-Term Contract for Biomass Supply.

Advantages of Biomass Co-firing

Carbon Emission Reduction.
Renewable Energy Integration.
Economic and Regulatory Benefits.
Utilization of Biomass Waste.
Various Biomass Sources.

2 / 5

With reference to Conservation Initiatives for Deepor Beel, consider the following statements ：

Simang is a local Endeavor to Combat Invasive Water Hyacinths.
Kumbhi Kagaz initiative focuses on rejuvenating Deepor Beel's ecological balance and creating alternative livelihood options for the local populace.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 & 2

None

EXPLANATION:

Deepor Beel Overview:

Nestled in the lower Assam region, Deepor Beel is a crucial wetland within the Brahmaputra Valley.
Recognized as the sole Ramsar site in the state (declared in 2002), it serves as a vital haven for both resident and migratory bird species.
Moreover, it holds immense significance as an ancient route for elephant movement, leading to its designation as a wildlife sanctuary.

Simang: A Local Endeavor to Combat Invasive Water Hyacinths:

A group of six women initiated Simang, a collective effort to address the invasive water hyacinth issue.
Water hyacinths, notorious for their rapid multiplication, posed a persistent challenge to the ecosystem's health.
Through innovative methods, Simang successfully transforms these weeds into exquisite artifacts and eco-friendly yoga mats.
The initiative extends its positive impact by generating employment opportunities for 38 women from the local community.
Notably, even during the COVID-19 pandemic, Simang continued to provide livelihoods by processing raw materials from Deepor Beel and crafting products on their handlooms.

Kumbhi Kagaz: Ecological Restoration and Economic Alternatives:

The Kumbhi Kagaz initiative focuses on two pivotal objectives: rejuvenating Deepor Beel's ecological balance and creating alternative livelihood options for the local populace.
Water hyacinths, which had previously disrupted the wetland's equilibrium, are ingeniously repurposed into 100% biodegradable handmade papers.
A remarkable outcome of Kumbhi Kagaz's efforts has been the substantial enhancement of makhana (prickly water lily) growth in the wetland, rendering economic benefits.
This initiative emerges as a model that showcases the harmonious coexistence of environmental conservation and sustainable livelihoods.

3 / 5

Which of the following country is not a part of Malabar Exercise?

India

Japan

United States

Austria

Exercise Malabar is a significant naval exercise involving India, Japan, the United States, and Australia. The exercise aims to promote maritime cooperation and interoperability among the participating countries in the Indo-Pacific region.

Exercise Malabar was initiated in 1992 as a bilateral exercise between India and the United States. Over the years, it has evolved to include Japan and Australia, reflecting the importance of regional security and cooperation. The exercise involves various naval activities such as air defense, sea operations, and joint exercises, with a focus on maintaining a free and open Indo-Pacific.

4 / 5

ECOWAS is a regional intergovernmental organization based in

West Africa

West Australia

West America

West Asia

The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is a regional intergovernmental organization in West Africa. It was established in 1975 to promote economic integration, cooperation, and development among member states.

ECOWAS comprises 15 member countries, including Benin, Burkina Faso, Ghana, Nigeria, and more. The organization focuses on various areas such as economic growth, political stability, social ties, and cultural collaboration. In light of security challenges and the refugee crisis, ECOWAS plays a crucial role in fostering peace and stability in the region. It collaborates with member states and engages in various regional and international forums to address shared concerns and promote sustainable development.

5 / 5

With reference to International Tribal Day, consider the following statements ：

It is celebrated globally on August 9th each year.
It aims to raise awareness about the rights, cultures, and challenges faced by indigenous peoples around the world.
Theme for 2023 is "Let us stand for Tribal Rights".

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

The International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples is celebrated globally on August 9th each year. It commemorates the first session of the Working Group on Indigenous Populations in 1982 and aims to raise awareness about the rights, cultures, and challenges faced by indigenous peoples around the world.

Indigenous peoples, constituting about 6.2% of the global population, possess unique cultural and environmental practices. The day serves as a reminder of the need to protect their rights, promote self-determination, and address the common challenges they face.

This year's theme, "Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change," highlights the role of young indigenous individuals in driving positive transformation within their communities. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

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Created on August 09, 2023 By

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6th to 7th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

Q With reference to Bhu-Vision, which of these statements given above is correct?

(a) It is an Internet of Things-based soil testing and agronomy advisory platform.

(b) It is a Blockchain Technology-based soil testing and agronomy advisory platform.

(d) (c) It is a remote-sensing satellite based payload recently launched by ISRO along with Chandrayaan-3

EXPLANATION:

Bhu-Vision: Revolutionizing Soil Testing and Agronomy

Context: The introduction of Bhu-Vision, an IoT-based soil testing and agronomy advisory platform, marks a significant stride in India's agricultural technology landscape.

Platform Features:

Bhu-Vision employs IoT technology to swiftly conduct 12 soil parameter tests in just 30 minutes, improving speed and accuracy.
The platform delivers accurate soil health information, enabling farmers to optimize crop management and enhance agricultural productivity.

Impact on Agriculture and Sustainability:

Bhu-Vision aids in creating a comprehensive soil health map, guiding sustainable agricultural practices.
The platform facilitates precision farming, resource optimization, and data-driven decision-making for improved agricultural sustainability.

2 / 5

Q Which of the following is not a type of Orbital Transfer Techniques?

Douglas Transfer Orbit

Deep-space manoeuvre (DSM).

Constant-Thrust Trajectory

Orbital Inclination Change

EXPLANATION:

Chandrayaan-3 Lunar Mission

India's third lunar mission, aimed at a soft landing on the moon's surface
Entered lunar orbit 23 days after departure from Earth
Launched on July 14, 2023, to explore the moon's surface

Orbital Manoeuvre Explained:

Utilizing propulsion systems to change a spacecraft's orbit, commonly known as a burn.
For distant spacecraft like those around the Sun, it's termed a deep-space manoeuvre (DSM).
Transition phase during transfer orbits is called coasting.

Various Orbital Transfer Techniques:

Hohmann Transfer Orbit: Transition between circular orbits at different altitudes in the same plane.
Bi-Elliptic Transfer: Utilizes two half-elliptic orbits, potentially requiring less delta-v.
Low Energy Transfer: Energy-efficient trajectory using minimal fuel.
Orbital Inclination Change: Altering orbit inclination at orbital nodes, usually avoided due to high delta-v.
Constant-Thrust Trajectory: Prolonged engine burn with constant thrust, allowing high acceleration over time.

3 / 5

Q Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched the CRCS digital portal in Pune, Maharashtra.
Aiming to enhance ease of doing business and streamline processes in the cooperative sector.

Objectives:

Implement paperless applications with automatic compliance to the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act (MSCS Act).
Facilitate digital communication, enhance transparency, and improve decision-making through analytics.

Key Features of the Digital Portal:

Encompasses modules like registration, amendment of bye-laws, annual return filing, appeal, audit, and more.
Integrates recent changes to the MSCS Act, ensuring compliance with the latest legal framework.
Accelerates application processing through an electronic workflow for timely governance.
Secure OTP-based user registration and validation checks for data protection and adherence to regulations.

4 / 5

2. With reference to National Handloom Day, consider the following statements ：

It is observed every year on August 7 to promote and recognize handloom weavers' skills
The theme for 2023 is "Handlooms for Sustainable Fashion."

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

9th National Handloom Day

It is observed on August 7 to promote and recognize handloom weavers' skills
It honors the Swadeshi Movement's historical significance
Theme for 2023: "Handlooms for Sustainable Fashion."

With reference to Digital Portal for Central Registrar of Cooperative Societies, consider the following statements ：

It aims to implement paperless applications with automatic compliance to the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act (MSCS Act).
It aims to facilitate digital communication, enhance transparency, and improve decision-making through analytics

5 / 5

1. With reference to Avian Biodiversity in India, consider the following statements ：

Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) unveiled "75 Endemic Birds of India" publication, showcasing the unique biodiversity of Indian birds.
India houses 1,353 bird species, with 78 (5%) being endemic, found exclusively within the country.
Western Ghats, Andaman-Nicobar Islands, and Eastern Himalayas are critical hotspots for endemic bird species.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

75 Endemic Birds of India: Celebrating Avian Biodiversity

Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) unveiled "75 Endemic Birds of India" publication, showcasing the unique biodiversity of Indian birds.

India's Avian Diversity:

India houses 1,353 bird species, with 78 (5%) being endemic, found exclusively within the country.
Western Ghats, Andaman-Nicobar Islands, and Eastern Himalayas are critical hotspots for endemic bird species.

Conservation and Significance:

Publication emphasizes the importance of targeted conservation efforts for endemic species.
Provides insights into each species' traits, habitats, breeding habits, and more to inform conservation decisions.

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Created on August 05, 2023 By

admin

5th Aug , Current Affairs MCQ

1 / 5

With reference to Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), consider the following statements ：

UIDAI is a statutory authority established in 2016 under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
It is mandated to assign a 12-digit unique identification (Aadhaar) number to all residents of India.

Which of these statements given above are incorrect?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)

UIDAI is a statutory authority established in 2016 under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Mandated to assign a 12-digit unique identification (Aadhaar) number to all residents of India.

2 / 5

Which of the following is not a type of anti-tank Missile systems in India?

Nag Missile System

Milan

Spike NLOS

Agni

EXPLANATION:

Anti-tank Missile systems in India:

Spike NLOS variant, an extended-range version of Israel's Spike anti-tank guided missile, has a range of up to 25 km.
Nag Missile System: An indigenous fire-and-forget ATGM with a range of up to 4 km.
Milan ATGM: A French-designed ATGM in service with the Indian Army, capable of engaging armored targets at ranges of several kilometers.
Konkurs-M: A Russian-origin ATGM used by the Indian Army, offering a range of about 4 km.
HELINA: A helicopter-launched ATGM developed indigenously by India, capable of striking armored targets at extended ranges.
SANT: An indigenous standoff ATGM designed for aircraft, currently under development.

3 / 5

With reference to Cauvery Water Management Authority, consider the following statements ：

It was established based on the Cauvery Management Scheme approved by the Supreme Court.
It ensures the implementation and compliance of the Supreme Court's orders concerning the storage, apportionment, regulation, and control of Cauvery river waters.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Cauvery Water Management Authority

Formation:

The Cauvery Water Management Authority was established based on the Cauvery Management Scheme approved by the Supreme Court.
Ensures the implementation and compliance of the Supreme Court's orders concerning the storage, apportionment, regulation, and control of Cauvery river waters.

4 / 5

With reference to Ring Nebula, consider the following statements ：

It is a celestial object known for its striking appearance, a glowing, donut-shaped cloud of gas and dust located in space.
Its images were captured by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST).
Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Ring Nebula

A celestial object known for its striking appearance, a glowing, donut-shaped cloud of gas and dust located in space.
Images captured by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST).
Discovered by the French astronomer Antoine Darquier de Pellepoix in 1779.

5 / 5

With reference to Manas Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements ：

It is a protected area and wildlife sanctuary located in Assam, India.
It is included in India's First Tiger Reserves under Project Tiger in 1973.
It was declared a Biosphere Reserve in 1989, covering a substantial area.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

About Manas Tiger Reserve:

A protected area and wildlife sanctuary located in Assam, India.
Included in India's First Tiger Reserves under Project Tiger in 1973.
Declared a Biosphere Reserve in 1989, covering a substantial area.

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